Nursing Elites

1. An infant who has had diarrhea for 3 days is admitted in a lethargic state and is breathing rapidly. The parent states that the baby has been ingesting formula, although not as much as usual, and cannot understand the sudden change. What explanation should the nurse give the parent?

• A. Cellular metabolism is unstable in young children.
• B. The proportion of water in the body is less than in adults.
• C. Renal function is immature in children until they reach school age.
• D. The extracellular fluid requirement per unit of body weight is greater than in adults.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Infants have a higher extracellular fluid requirement per unit of body weight, making them more susceptible to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances during illnesses such as diarrhea. Choice A is incorrect because cellular metabolism being unstable is not the primary explanation for the symptoms described. Choice B is incorrect as the proportion of water in the body alone does not fully explain the increased risk of dehydration in infants. Choice C is incorrect because while renal function is immature in children, it is not the most relevant factor in this scenario compared to the increased fluid requirements.

2. A 1-year-old child has a congenital cardiac malformation that causes right-to-left shunting of blood through the heart. What clinical finding should the healthcare provider expect?

• A. Proteinuria
• B. Peripheral edema
• C. Elevated hematocrit
• D. Absence of pedal pulses

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a congenital cardiac malformation causing right-to-left shunting, the nurse should expect an elevated hematocrit. This occurs because the body compensates for decreased oxygenation by producing more red blood cells. Proteinuria (Choice A) is not typically associated with congenital cardiac malformations causing right-to-left shunting. Peripheral edema (Choice B) is more commonly seen in conditions causing left-sided heart failure. Absence of pedal pulses (Choice D) is not a typical finding in congenital cardiac malformations causing right-to-left shunting.

3. Surgical repair for patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) is done to prevent the complication of

• A. pulmonary infection
• B. right-to-left shunt of blood
• C. decreased workload on left side of the heart
• D. increased pulmonary vascular congestion

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: increased pulmonary vascular congestion. Surgical repair of patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) aims to prevent the complications associated with increased pulmonary vascular congestion, such as pulmonary hypertension and heart failure. Choice A, pulmonary infection, is not a direct complication of PDA but can occur secondary to other conditions. Choice B, right-to-left shunt of blood, is a feature of some congenital heart defects but not a direct complication of PDA. Choice C, decreased workload on the left side of the heart, is not a primary reason for surgical repair of PDA, as the main concern is the impact on pulmonary circulation.

4. The nurse is caring for an infant with osteogenesis imperfecta and is providing instruction on how to reduce the risk of injury. Which response from the mother indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I need to avoid pushing or pulling on an arm or leg.
• B. I must avoid lifting the baby from under the armpits.
• C. I should not bend an arm or leg into an awkward position.
• D. We must avoid lifting the legs by the ankles to change diapers.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Lifting the baby from under the armpits can cause fractures in infants with osteogenesis imperfecta. The correct approach is to support the baby's body and head carefully, avoiding pressure on vulnerable areas prone to fractures. Choices A, C, and D demonstrate proper awareness of caring for an infant with osteogenesis imperfecta by emphasizing caution to prevent fractures.

5. A healthcare provider is preparing a 2-year-old child for surgery. What preoperative teaching should be provided to this child?

• A. Explaining the procedure in simple terms
• B. Using a doll to demonstrate the procedure
• C. Showing pictures of the hospital environment
• D. Allowing the child to play with medical equipment

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Using a doll to demonstrate the procedure is the most appropriate preoperative teaching method for a 2-year-old child. It helps them understand what to expect in a non-threatening way by providing a visual representation of the upcoming surgery. Explaining the procedure in simple terms may be too abstract for a child of this age, as they may not fully comprehend verbal explanations. Showing pictures of the hospital environment may not be as effective as using a doll, as it may not provide a concrete understanding of the actual procedure. Allowing the child to play with medical equipment is unsafe and does not adequately prepare them for the surgery, as it may lead to misunderstandings or fear regarding the equipment's actual use during the surgery.

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