Nursing Elites

1. What is a procedure for using ultrasonic sound waves to create a picture of an embryo or fetus?

• A. Phenotype
• B. Sonogram
• C. Genotype
• D. Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) assay

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A sonogram, also known as an ultrasound, is a procedure that utilizes sound waves to generate images of a developing embryo or fetus. This imaging technique is commonly used in prenatal care to monitor fetal development and identify any potential abnormalities. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because a phenotype refers to an individual's observable traits resulting from genetic and environmental influences, a genotype is an individual's genetic makeup, and an alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) assay is a blood test used to screen for certain birth defects.

2. A nurse is teaching about clomiphene citrate to a client who is experiencing infertility. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse include?

• A. Tinnitus
• B. Urinary Frequency
• C. Breast Tenderness
• D. Chills

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Breast Tenderness.' Clomiphene citrate is known to cause breast tenderness as a common side effect due to its hormonal effects on the body. Tinnitus (choice A), which is a ringing in the ears, is not typically associated with clomiphene citrate. Urinary frequency (choice B) is not a common adverse effect of this medication. Chills (choice D) are also not commonly linked to clomiphene citrate use.

3. A 30-year-old primigravida delivers a nine-pound (4082 gram) infant vaginally after a 30-hour labor. What is the priority nursing action for this client?

• A. Assess the blood pressure for hypertension.
• B. Gently massage fundus every four hours.
• C. Observe for signs of uterine hemorrhage.
• D. Encourage direct contact with the infant.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: After a prolonged labor and delivery of a large infant, the client is at an increased risk for uterine atony and postpartum hemorrhage, making observation for signs of bleeding a priority. Assessing the blood pressure for hypertension (Choice A) is not the priority in this situation as the immediate concern is postpartum hemorrhage. Gently massaging the fundus every four hours (Choice B) is a routine postpartum care activity but is not the priority in this scenario. Encouraging direct contact with the infant (Choice D) is important for bonding but does not address the immediate risk of uterine hemorrhage after delivery.

4. A client at 20 weeks of gestation has trichomoniasis. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Thick, White Vaginal Discharge
• B. Urinary Frequency
• C. Vulvar Lesions
• D. Malodorous Discharge

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Malodorous discharge is a common symptom of trichomoniasis caused by the Trichomonas vaginalis parasite. It is typically described as frothy, greenish-yellow, and malodorous. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect findings associated with other conditions. Thick, white vaginal discharge is more characteristic of a yeast infection; urinary frequency may be seen in urinary tract infections; and vulvar lesions are commonly seen in herpes simplex virus infections.

5. Dizygotic (DZ) twins share _________ percent of their genes.

• A. 100
• B. 75
• C. 50
• D. 25

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Dizygotic (DZ) twins share approximately 50% of their genes. This is because dizygotic twins, also known as fraternal twins, originate from two separate fertilized eggs and share similar genetic similarity to regular siblings. Choice A (100%) is incorrect because if twins shared 100% of their genes, they would be identical twins (monozygotic). Choice B (75%) is incorrect as it is not the typical genetic similarity seen in dizygotic twins. Choice D (25%) is incorrect as it represents a significantly lower genetic similarity than what is observed in dizygotic twins.

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