an is a procedure for using ultrasonic sound waves to create a picture of an embryo or fetus
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HESI Maternity 55 Questions

1. What is a procedure for using ultrasonic sound waves to create a picture of an embryo or fetus?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A sonogram, also known as an ultrasound, is a procedure that utilizes sound waves to generate images of a developing embryo or fetus. This imaging technique is commonly used in prenatal care to monitor fetal development and identify any potential abnormalities. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because a phenotype refers to an individual's observable traits resulting from genetic and environmental influences, a genotype is an individual's genetic makeup, and an alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) assay is a blood test used to screen for certain birth defects.

2. Which of the following pairs of bases is present in the rungs of the ladder-like structure of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cytosine with guanine. In the DNA double helix, cytosine always pairs with guanine forming a base pair, and adenine pairs with thymine. These complementary base pairs form the rungs of the ladder-like structure of DNA. Choice B, Rhodamine with biotin, is incorrect as they are not base pairs found in DNA. Choice D, Serine with tyrosine, is incorrect as they are amino acids, not DNA bases. Choice C, Diaminopurine with ribozyme, is also incorrect as ribozyme is an enzyme, not a base, and diaminopurine is not one of the standard bases found in DNA.

3. What is the typical sex chromosome pattern for males?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: XY. In males, the typical sex chromosome pattern consists of one X chromosome and one Y chromosome. Choice A (XX) is the sex chromosome pattern for females. Choice B (XYY) is a chromosomal disorder where males have an extra Y chromosome. Choice D (XXY) is the sex chromosome pattern associated with Klinefelter syndrome, a condition where males have an extra X chromosome.

4. A client with preeclampsia is receiving magnesium sulfate by continuous IV infusion. Which finding should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with preeclampsia receiving magnesium sulfate, a urinary output of 20 mL/hr is a concerning finding as it may indicate renal impairment or magnesium toxicity. Adequate urinary output is crucial for eliminating excess magnesium and preventing toxicity. The nurse should report this finding to the provider for further evaluation. A blood pressure of 148/94 mm Hg is elevated but expected in a client with preeclampsia. A respiratory rate of 14/min is within the normal range. 2+ deep tendon reflexes are a common finding in clients receiving magnesium sulfate and are not a cause for concern unless they progress to hyperreflexia or clonus.

5. When reviewing the electronic medical record of a postpartum client, which of the following factors places the client at risk for infection?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Midline episiotomy. An episiotomy is a surgical incision made during childbirth to enlarge the vaginal opening. This procedure increases the risk of infection in the postpartum period due to the incision site being a potential entry point for pathogens. Meconium-stained amniotic fluid (choice A) is a risk factor for fetal distress but does not directly increase the mother's risk of infection. Placenta previa (choice B) is a condition where the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix, leading to potential bleeding issues but not necessarily an increased risk of infection. Gestational hypertension (choice D) is a hypertensive disorder that affects some pregnant women but is not directly associated with an increased risk of infection in the postpartum period.

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