HESI LPN
Adult Health 1 Final Exam
1. After placement of a left subclavian central venous catheter (CVC), the nurse receives a report of the X-ray findings indicating that the CVC tip is in the client's superior vena cava. Which action should the nurse implement?
- A. Remove the catheter and apply direct pressure for 5 minutes.
- B. Initiate intravenous fluids as prescribed.
- C. Secure the catheter using aseptic technique.
- D. Notify the healthcare provider of the need to reposition the catheter.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Initiating intravenous fluids as prescribed is the appropriate action when the CVC tip is correctly placed in the superior vena cava. Intravenous fluids can now be administered effectively through the central line. Removing the catheter and applying direct pressure is unnecessary and not indicated as the tip is in the correct position. Securing the catheter using aseptic technique is important for preventing infections but is not the immediate action needed in this situation. Notifying the healthcare provider of the need to reposition the catheter may delay necessary fluid administration, which is the priority at this time.
2. A 9-year-old is receiving vancomycin 400 mg IV every 6 hours for a methicillin-resistant (Beta-lactam-resistant) Staphylococci aureus (MRSA) infection. The medication is diluted in a 100 mL bag of saline with instructions to infuse over one and a half hours. How many mL/hour should the nurse program the infusion pump?
- A. 50
- B. 67
- C. 57
- D. 70
Correct answer: B
Rationale: To calculate the infusion rate for vancomycin, you need to divide the total volume by the total time of infusion. In this case, the total volume is 100 mL, and the total time is 1.5 hours. Therefore, 100 mL รท 1.5 hours = 67 mL/hour. This means the nurse should program the infusion pump to deliver vancomycin at a rate of 67 mL/hour. Choice A (50) is incorrect as it does not reflect the correct calculation. Choice C (57) is incorrect as it is not the accurate calculation based on the provided information. Choice D (70) is incorrect as it does not correspond to the correct infusion rate calculation.
3. A client with diabetes exhibits a blood sugar of 350 mg/dL. What is the nurse's best action?
- A. Administer insulin as prescribed
- B. Provide a carbohydrate-controlled snack
- C. Encourage physical activity
- D. Recheck the blood sugar
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a client with diabetes presenting with a blood sugar level of 350 mg/dL, the best action for the nurse is to administer insulin as prescribed. High blood sugar levels can lead to complications like diabetic ketoacidosis, making prompt insulin administration crucial to lower the blood glucose level. Providing a carbohydrate-controlled snack would be inappropriate as it may further elevate blood sugar levels. Encouraging physical activity is not advisable when the blood sugar is significantly high, as exercise can raise blood sugar levels. Rechecking the blood sugar is necessary after administering insulin to monitor the response to treatment.
4. The wife is observed shaving her husband's beard with a safety razor. What should the nurse do?
- A. Advise the wife to shave against the hair growth
- B. Teach the wife to keep the skin loose to avoid cuts
- C. Encourage the wife to continue shaving her husband
- D. Demonstrate the correct procedure to the wife
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In this situation, the nurse should encourage the wife to continue shaving her husband. The rationale behind this is that the wife is already performing the task, so abrupt interference may lead to potential harm or emotional distress. It is crucial for the nurse to carefully observe the situation and assess for any safety concerns. While teaching proper techniques (Choice B) is important, it can be addressed later in a non-critical manner to prevent skin irritation and injury. Advising to shave against the hair growth (Choice A) may cause skin irritation and cuts. Although demonstrating the correct procedure (Choice D) may be helpful, it is essential to consider the current dynamics and respect the wife's autonomy in caring for her husband.
5. A client is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis. What is the most critical treatment to initiate?
- A. Administer sodium bicarbonate IV
- B. Start an insulin drip
- C. Monitor glucose and ketone levels
- D. Provide oral hydration
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In the case of diabetic ketoacidosis, the most critical treatment to initiate is starting an insulin drip. Insulin therapy is crucial for reducing blood glucose levels by promoting glucose uptake in cells and inhibiting the production of ketones. Administering sodium bicarbonate IV is generally not recommended as it may lower the pH further and potentially worsen the condition. While monitoring glucose and ketone levels is important for assessing the response to treatment, initiating insulin therapy takes precedence. Providing oral hydration alone is insufficient to manage the metabolic derangements seen in diabetic ketoacidosis.
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