Nursing Elites

1. A woman at 24-weeks gestation who has fever, body aches, and has been coughing for the last 5 days is sent to the hospital with admission prescriptions for H1N1 influenza. Which action has the highest priority?

• A. Administer Ringer's Lactate IV 125ml/8 hours
• B. Obtain specimens for cultures
• C. Assign a private room
• D. Monitor vital signs q4 hours

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Assigning a private room has the highest priority in this scenario. It helps prevent the spread of H1N1 influenza to other patients and protects both the patient and others from potential infection. Obtaining specimens for cultures and monitoring vital signs are important but do not address the immediate need to prevent the spread of the virus. Administering Ringer's Lactate IV is not the priority in this case as it does not directly address the infectious nature of the condition.

2. After the diagnosis and initial treatment of a 3-year-old with Cystic fibrosis, the nurse provides home care instructions to the mother. Which statement by the child's mother indicates that she understands home care treatment to promote pulmonary functions?

• A. Chest physiotherapy should be performed twice a day before a meal
• B. Energy should be conserved by scheduling minimally strenuous activities
• C. Administer a cough suppressant every 8 hours
• D. Maintain supplemental oxygen at 4 to 6 L/minute

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Chest physiotherapy is essential for maintaining pulmonary function in cystic fibrosis. It should be performed regularly, often twice daily, to clear mucus from the lungs. Choice B is incorrect because conserving energy does not directly promote pulmonary function. Choice C is incorrect as cough suppressants are not typically used to promote pulmonary function in cystic fibrosis. Choice D is incorrect as maintaining supplemental oxygen at 4 to 6 L/minute is not a standard home care treatment for promoting pulmonary functions in cystic fibrosis.

3. The healthcare provider prescribed furosemide for a 4-year-old child with a ventricular septal defect. Which outcome indicates to the nurse that this pharmacological intervention was effective?

• A. Urine specific gravity changing from 1.021 to 1.031
• B. Daily weight decrease of 2 pounds (0.9 kg)
• C. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) increasing from 8 to 12 mg/dl (2.9 to 4.3)
• D. Urinary output decreasing by 5 ml/hour

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A daily weight decrease of 2 pounds (0.9 kg) is the most appropriate outcome to indicate the effectiveness of furosemide in a child with a ventricular septal defect. Furosemide is a diuretic medication that helps reduce fluid retention. Therefore, a decrease in weight reflects a reduction in fluid volume, which is the desired effect of furosemide. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because changes in urine specific gravity, blood urea nitrogen (BUN) levels, and urinary output do not directly reflect the effectiveness of furosemide in this context.

4. Several clients on a busy antepartum unit are scheduled for procedures that require informed consent. Which situation should the nurse explore further before witnessing the client's signature on the consent form?

• A. The client was medicated for pain with a narcotic analgesic IM 6 hours ago
• B. A 15-year-old primigravida who has been self-supporting for the past 6 months
• C. The obstetrician explained a procedure that a neurologist will perform
• D. The client is illiterate but verbalizes understanding and consent for the procedure

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because an illiterate client may require additional support to ensure they fully comprehend the information provided in the informed consent process. It is crucial to confirm that the client truly understands the nature of the procedure, its risks, and benefits. While it is important to assess pain control (choice A), a client's previous medication administration does not directly impact their ability to understand the consent process. Choice B, a 15-year-old primigravida who has been self-supporting, may legally provide informed consent depending on the jurisdiction and circumstances, so this situation may not require further exploration. Choice C, explaining a procedure by a different specialist, does not necessarily require additional exploration before witnessing the client's consent.

5. When preparing to discharge a male client who has been hospitalized for an adrenal crisis, the client expresses concern about having another crisis. He tells the nurse that he wants to stay in the hospital a few more days. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Administer antianxiety medication before providing discharge instructions
• B. Schedule a follow-up appointment for an outpatient psychosocial assessment
• C. Obtain a blood cortisol level before discharge
• D. Encourage the client to remain in the hospital for a few more days

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention is to schedule a follow-up appointment for an outpatient psychosocial assessment. This option addresses the client's concerns and provides support for managing stress and preventing future crises, which is crucial for the client's long-term care. Administering antianxiety medication before providing discharge instructions (Choice A) may not effectively address the underlying concerns. Obtaining a blood cortisol level before discharge (Choice C) is important but not the priority in this situation. Encouraging the client to remain in the hospital for a few more days (Choice D) is not the best course of action as it may not address the client's anxiety and could potentially lead to other issues.

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