HESI LPN
HESI CAT
1. A woman at 24-weeks gestation who has fever, body aches, and has been coughing for the last 5 days is sent to the hospital with admission prescriptions for H1N1 influenza. Which action has the highest priority?
- A. Administer Ringer's Lactate IV 125ml/8 hours
- B. Obtain specimens for cultures
- C. Assign a private room
- D. Monitor vital signs q4 hours
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Assigning a private room has the highest priority in this scenario. It helps prevent the spread of H1N1 influenza to other patients and protects both the patient and others from potential infection. Obtaining specimens for cultures and monitoring vital signs are important but do not address the immediate need to prevent the spread of the virus. Administering Ringer's Lactate IV is not the priority in this case as it does not directly address the infectious nature of the condition.
2. Which entry in the client record best reflects significant data on a male client who is admitted with complaints of chest pain?
- A. Nurse will check client q1h for the presence of chest pain
- B. Client has a nervous, tense personality and is likely to overreact
- C. Client states he will notify the nurse if chest pain returns
- D. Client understands how to use the call button and the telephone
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because documenting the client's statement about notifying the nurse if chest pain returns provides direct, relevant information about their condition. This entry indicates the client's awareness of their symptoms and their willingness to seek assistance, which is crucial in managing chest pain. Choice A is incorrect because it focuses on the nurse's actions rather than the client's condition. Choice B is irrelevant as it discusses the client's personality rather than their current health issue. Choice D, though related to communication, does not directly address the client's chest pain complaint.
3. A client with leukemia who is receiving myelosuppressive chemotherapy has a platelet count of 25,000/mm3. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in this client’s plan of care?
- A. Monitor for signs of activity intolerance
- B. Require visitors to wear respiratory masks
- C. Assess urine and stool for occult blood
- D. Obtain client’s temperature q4 hours
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to assess urine and stool for occult blood. With a low platelet count, there is an increased risk of bleeding. Monitoring for occult blood is essential to detect any signs of internal bleeding. Choices A, B, and D are not the priority interventions in this situation. While monitoring for signs of activity intolerance, requiring visitors to wear respiratory masks, and obtaining the client's temperature are important aspects of care, they are not as critical as assessing for occult blood in a client with a low platelet count.
4. The nurse provides discharge teaching to a client who was recently diagnosed with diabetes mellitus (DM). After receiving the instructions, the client expresses understanding about when, how, and why to take his prescribed medications at home. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?
- A. Review the purpose of medications prescribed for the client to take home with him
- B. Provide the client with a printed list of medications and a schedule for administration
- C. Send a list of medications taken while hospitalized to the client’s healthcare provider
- D. Offer to consult with the pharmacist about resources for reduced-price medications
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Providing the client with a printed list of medications and a schedule for administration is crucial to ensure adherence and understanding of the medication regimen at home. This intervention helps the client follow the prescribed treatment plan accurately. Choice A is not as essential since the client already understands when, how, and why to take the medications. Choice C is not a priority at this point as the client needs information for home medication management. Choice D, while helpful, is not the most important intervention compared to providing a clear list and schedule for medication administration.
5. The healthcare provider changes a client’s medication prescription from IV to PO administration and doubles the dose. The nurse notes in the drug guide that the prescribed medication, when given orally, has a high first-pass effect and reduces bioavailability. What action should the nurse implement?
- A. Continue administering the medication via the IV route.
- B. Give half the prescribed oral dose until consulting the provider.
- C. Administer the medication orally as prescribed.
- D. Consult with the pharmacist regarding the prescription change.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement is to consult with the pharmacist regarding the change in prescription. With the high first-pass effect of the medication when given orally, it reduces its bioavailability, meaning a dosage adjustment may be necessary to achieve the desired therapeutic effect. Continuing to administer the medication via the IV route (choice A) is not appropriate as the prescription has been changed to oral administration. Giving half the prescribed oral dose until consulting the provider (choice B) is not recommended without proper guidance, which should come from consulting with the pharmacist. Simply administering the medication orally as prescribed (choice C) without addressing the potential issue of reduced bioavailability may lead to suboptimal treatment outcomes.
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