HESI LPN
HESI CAT
1. A woman at 24-weeks gestation who has fever, body aches, and has been coughing for the last 5 days is sent to the hospital with admission prescriptions for H1N1 influenza. Which action has the highest priority?
- A. Administer Ringer's Lactate IV 125ml/8 hours
- B. Obtain specimens for cultures
- C. Assign a private room
- D. Monitor vital signs q4 hours
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Assigning a private room has the highest priority in this scenario. It helps prevent the spread of H1N1 influenza to other patients and protects both the patient and others from potential infection. Obtaining specimens for cultures and monitoring vital signs are important but do not address the immediate need to prevent the spread of the virus. Administering Ringer's Lactate IV is not the priority in this case as it does not directly address the infectious nature of the condition.
2. During an admission assessment on an HIV positive client diagnosed with Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia (PCP), which symptoms should the nurse carefully observe the client for?
- A. Weight loss exceeding 10 percent of baseline body weight
- B. Altered mental status and tachypnea
- C. Creamy white patches in the oral cavity
- D. Normal ABGs with wet lung sounds in all lung fields
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Altered mental status and tachypnea. These symptoms are indicative of PCP and severe HIV progression. Weight loss exceeding 10 percent of baseline body weight (choice A) may be seen in HIV/AIDS but is not specific to PCP. Creamy white patches in the oral cavity (choice C) are characteristic of oral thrush, which is more commonly associated with Candida infections in HIV patients. Normal ABGs with wet lung sounds in all lung fields (choice D) would not be expected with PCP, as it typically presents with hypoxemia and diffuse bilateral infiltrates on chest imaging.
3. To differentiate adventitious lung sounds associated with heart failure from those associated with bacterial pneumonia, what information should the nurse review?
- A. Sputum culture findings
- B. Oxygen saturation level
- C. Amount of coughing
- D. Respiratory rate
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Sputum culture findings. Reviewing sputum culture findings can provide valuable information to differentiate between bacterial pneumonia and heart failure, as the type of bacteria present in the sputum can help identify the specific infection. Oxygen saturation level (Choice B) is important for assessing oxygenation status but does not directly help in distinguishing between the two conditions based on lung sounds. The amount of coughing (Choice C) and respiratory rate (Choice D) may offer some clinical insights but are not as specific or diagnostic as sputum culture findings when differentiating between heart failure and bacterial pneumonia.
4. Following an open reduction and internal fixation of a compound fracture of the leg, a male client complains of “a tingly sensation” in his left foot. The nurse determines the client’s left pedal pulses are diminished. Based on these findings, what is the client’s greatest risk?
- A. Reduce pulmonary ventilation and oxygenation related to fat embolism.
- B. Neurovascular and circulation compromise related to compartment syndrome.
- C. Wound infection and delayed healing due to fractured bone protrusion.
- D. Venous stasis and thrombophlebitis related to postoperative immobility.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Compartment syndrome is a serious condition that can occur following trauma or surgery, leading to compromised neurovascular status in the affected limb. Symptoms include pain, paresthesia (tingling sensation), and diminished pulses. If left untreated, compartment syndrome can result in tissue damage and potential loss of limb function. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly address the neurovascular compromise associated with compartment syndrome.
5. The nurse is preparing to administer an IM dose of vitamin B1 (Thiamine) to a male client experiencing acute alcohol withdrawal and peripheral neuritis. The client belligerently states, “What do you think you’re doing?” How should the nurse respond?
- A. “I cannot give you this medication until you calm down.”
- B. “This shot will help relieve the pain in your feet.”
- C. “Would you prefer to learn to administer your own shot?”
- D. “You will feel calmer and less jittery after this shot.”
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct response is to provide a relevant explanation to the client. Choice B, “This shot will help relieve the pain in your feet,” is the best answer because it directly addresses the client's concern about the purpose of the medication. By explaining the potential benefit of the injection, the nurse can alleviate the client's anxiety and increase their cooperation during the procedure. Choice A is incorrect as it dismisses the client's question and may escalate the situation. Choice C is not suitable as it deviates from addressing the client's immediate query. Choice D is incorrect because it fails to specifically address the client's concern regarding the medication's purpose.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access