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1. A woman at 24-weeks gestation who has fever, body aches, and has been coughing for the last 5 days is sent to the hospital with admission prescriptions for H1N1 influenza. Which action has the highest priority?
- A. Administer Ringer's Lactate IV 125ml/8 hours
- B. Obtain specimens for cultures
- C. Assign a private room
- D. Monitor vital signs q4 hours
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Assigning a private room has the highest priority in this scenario. It helps prevent the spread of H1N1 influenza to other patients and protects both the patient and others from potential infection. Obtaining specimens for cultures and monitoring vital signs are important but do not address the immediate need to prevent the spread of the virus. Administering Ringer's Lactate IV is not the priority in this case as it does not directly address the infectious nature of the condition.
2. A 37-year-old client diagnosed with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is being treated for renal osteodystrophy. Which nursing diagnosis is most likely to be included in this client’s plan of care?
- A. High risk for infection related to subclavian catheter
- B. High risk of injury related to ambulation
- C. Knowledge deficit related to a high-protein diet
- D. Hygiene self-care deficit related to uremic frost
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Uremic frost is a condition in which urea and other waste products are excreted through the skin, leaving a powdery residue. This indicates poor hygiene and self-care, common issues in patients with CKD and renal osteodystrophy. Proper hygiene measures are essential to prevent complications. Choices A, B, and C are less likely to be included in the plan of care for a CKD patient with renal osteodystrophy. Choice A is more related to a vascular access issue, choice B is more related to mobility concerns, and choice C is more related to dietary education.
3. The healthcare provider explains through an interpreter the risks and benefits of a scheduled surgical procedure to a non-English speaking female client. The client gives verbal consent, and the healthcare provider leaves, instructing the nurse to witness the signature on the consent form. The client and interpreter then speak together in the foreign language for an additional 2 minutes until the interpreter concludes, 'She says it is OK.' What action should the nurse take next?
- A. Clarify the client’s consent through the use of gestures and simple terms
- B. Have the interpreter co-sign the consent to validate the client's understanding
- C. Ask for a full explanation from the interpreter of the witnessed discussion
- D. Have the client sign the consent form and the nurse witness the signature
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Having the interpreter co-sign the consent form is the most appropriate action in this scenario. By having the interpreter co-sign, it ensures an additional layer of verification of the client's understanding and consent, which is crucial when language barriers exist. This step adds a level of confirmation to safeguard that the client's consent is both valid and well-informed. Option A is not sufficient as gestures and simple terms may not fully clarify the client's understanding, especially for complex medical procedures. Option C is unnecessary since the interpreter has already confirmed the client's consent. Option D does not involve the interpreter in validating the client's understanding, which is essential in this situation to ensure effective communication and comprehension between the client and the healthcare team.
4. The nurse is assessing an infant with pyloric stenosis. Which pathophysiological mechanism is the most likely consequence of this infant’s clinical picture?
- A. Metabolic acidosis
- B. Metabolic alkalosis
- C. Respiratory alkalosis
- D. Respiratory acidosis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Pyloric stenosis often leads to metabolic alkalosis due to the loss of gastric acid from vomiting. Metabolic acidosis would not be expected in pyloric stenosis as there is no excessive acid accumulation. Respiratory alkalosis and respiratory acidosis are not typically associated with pyloric stenosis, making them incorrect choices.
5. A male client with hypertension, who received new antihypertensive prescriptions at his last visit, returns to the clinic two weeks later to evaluate his blood pressure (BP). His BP is 158/106, and he admits that he has not been taking the prescribed medication because the drugs make him 'feel bad.' In explaining the need for hypertension control, the nurse should stress that an elevated BP places the client at risk for which pathophysiological condition?
- A. Feed the client a snack
- B. Empty the urinary drainage bag
- C. Offer the client oral fluids
- D. Stroke secondary to hemorrhage
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Elevated blood pressure, if left uncontrolled, significantly increases the risk of stroke secondary to hemorrhage and other cardiovascular events. This condition can lead to serious complications due to the increased pressure on the blood vessels in the brain. Choices A, B, and C are unrelated to the potential pathophysiological consequences of uncontrolled hypertension and are not the primary concern in this scenario.
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