HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Exam
1. If a security officer is reviewing actions to take in the event of a bomb threat by phone to a group of nurses, which statement by a nurse indicates understanding?
- A. “I will get the caller off the phone as soon as possible so I can alert the staff.”
- B. “I will begin evacuating clients using the elevators.”
- C. “I will not ask any questions and just let the caller talk.”
- D. “I will listen for background noises.”
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: “I will listen for background noises.” Listening for background noises can provide useful information about the bomb’s location, helping security to assess the situation more effectively. Choice A is incorrect because disconnecting the call abruptly may prevent gathering important details. Choice B is incorrect as using elevators during a bomb threat can be dangerous; it is safer to use stairs for evacuation. Choice C is incorrect because actively engaging with the caller to gather information is crucial in bomb threat situations.
2. A client with asthma is prescribed a corticosteroid inhaler. Which instruction should the nurse provide to the client to prevent a common side effect of this medication?
- A. Use the inhaler only when experiencing asthma symptoms.
- B. Rinse the mouth with water after using the inhaler.
- C. Increase fluid intake while using the inhaler.
- D. Avoid eating or drinking for 30 minutes after using the inhaler.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction for the client using a corticosteroid inhaler to prevent a common side effect is to rinse the mouth with water after using the inhaler. Corticosteroid inhalers can lead to oral thrush, a fungal infection in the mouth. Rinsing the mouth helps reduce the risk of developing oral thrush. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because using the inhaler only when experiencing symptoms, increasing fluid intake, or avoiding eating/drinking for 30 minutes after use are not directly related to preventing oral thrush, which is the common side effect associated with corticosteroid inhalers.
3. A client with a diagnosis of Guillain-Barre syndrome is in a non-responsive state, yet vital signs are stable and breathing is independent. What should the nurse document to most accurately describe the client's condition?
- A. Comatose, breathing unlabored
- B. Glasgow Coma Scale 8, respirations regular
- C. Appears to be sleeping, vital signs stable
- D. Glasgow Coma Scale 13, no ventilator required
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. A Glasgow Coma Scale of 8 with regular respirations accurately describes a non-responsive state with independent breathing. Choice A is incorrect because 'comatose' implies a deeper state of unconsciousness than what is described in the scenario. Choice C is inaccurate as the client is not merely sleeping but non-responsive. Choice D is incorrect as a Glasgow Coma Scale of 13 indicates a higher level of consciousness than what is presented in the scenario.
4. When administering an otic medication to an older adult client, which action should the nurse take to ensure that the medication reaches the inner ear?
- A. Press gently on the tragus of the client's ear
- B. Pack a small piece of cotton deep into the client's ear canal
- C. Move the client's auricle down and back toward their head
- D. Tilt the client's head backward for 5 minutes
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action to ensure that otic medication reaches the inner ear is to press gently on the tragus. The tragus is a small cartilaginous projection in front of the ear canal. Pressing on it helps to straighten the ear canal, allowing the medication to reach the inner ear. Packing cotton or moving the auricle can obstruct the ear canal and prevent proper medication delivery. Tilting the client's head backward is not necessary and may not facilitate the medication reaching the inner ear as effectively as pressing on the tragus.
5. A client with a history of severe anxiety is scheduled for surgery. Which preoperative medication is the most appropriate for the LPN/LVN to administer to this client?
- A. Lorazepam (Ativan)
- B. Morphine sulfate
- C. Meperidine (Demerol)
- D. Promethazine (Phenergan)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Lorazepam (Ativan) is the most appropriate preoperative medication for a client with severe anxiety. Lorazepam belongs to the benzodiazepine class and is commonly used to manage anxiety before surgical procedures due to its anxiolytic properties. Morphine sulfate and Meperidine (Demerol) are opioid analgesics, not typically indicated for preoperative anxiety. Promethazine (Phenergan) is an antihistamine used for nausea and vomiting, not anxiety management.
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