Nursing Elites

1. If a security officer is reviewing actions to take in the event of a bomb threat by phone to a group of nurses, which statement by a nurse indicates understanding?

• A. “I will get the caller off the phone as soon as possible so I can alert the staff.”
• B. “I will begin evacuating clients using the elevators.”
• C. “I will not ask any questions and just let the caller talk.”
• D. “I will listen for background noises.”

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: “I will listen for background noises.” Listening for background noises can provide useful information about the bomb’s location, helping security to assess the situation more effectively. Choice A is incorrect because disconnecting the call abruptly may prevent gathering important details. Choice B is incorrect as using elevators during a bomb threat can be dangerous; it is safer to use stairs for evacuation. Choice C is incorrect because actively engaging with the caller to gather information is crucial in bomb threat situations.

2. A client with chronic kidney disease is experiencing hyperkalemia. Which medication should the LPN/LVN anticipate being prescribed to lower the client's potassium level?

• A. Furosemide (Lasix)
• B. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate)
• C. Calcium gluconate
• D. Albuterol (Proventil)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate). Kayexalate is commonly used to lower potassium levels in clients with hyperkalemia by exchanging sodium ions for potassium ions in the large intestine, leading to the elimination of excess potassium from the body. Choice A, Furosemide (Lasix), is a loop diuretic that helps with fluid retention but does not directly lower potassium levels. Choice C, Calcium gluconate, is used to treat calcium deficiencies and does not impact potassium levels. Choice D, Albuterol (Proventil), is a bronchodilator used to treat respiratory conditions and does not affect potassium levels. Therefore, the LPN/LVN should anticipate the prescription of Kayexalate to address the client's hyperkalemia.

3. A client who is 5'5" tall and weighs 200 pounds is scheduled for surgery the next day. What question is most important for the LPN to include during the preoperative assessment?

• A. What is your daily calorie consumption?
• B. What vitamin and mineral supplements do you take?
• C. Do you feel that you are overweight?
• D. Will a clear liquid diet be okay after surgery?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During the preoperative assessment, it is crucial for the LPN to inquire about the client's intake of vitamin and mineral supplements. This is important because certain supplements can have effects on coagulation, wound healing, and overall surgical outcomes. Asking about daily calorie consumption (Choice A) is not as pertinent as inquiring about vitamin and mineral supplements in this context. Questioning the client about feeling overweight (Choice C) may not directly impact the surgical outcome compared to the effects of supplements. Inquiring about the post-surgery diet (Choice D) is relevant but not as critical as understanding the client's supplement intake.

4. The healthcare professional prepares a 1,000 ml IV of 5% dextrose and water to be infused over 8 hours. The infusion set delivers 10 drops per milliliter. The healthcare professional should regulate the IV to administer approximately how many drops per minute?

• A. 80
• B. 8
• C. 21
• D. 25

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To calculate the drops per minute for the IV infusion, first determine the total drops to be infused over 8 hours. 1,000 ml to be infused over 8 hours means 125 ml per hour (1000 ml / 8 hours = 125 ml/hr). Since the infusion set delivers 10 drops per ml, 125 ml/hr x 10 drops/ml = 1250 drops/hr. To find drops per minute, divide the drops per hour by 60 (minutes in an hour): 1250 drops/hr / 60 minutes = 20.83 drops/minute, which rounds up to 21 drops per minute (Option C). This rate ensures the correct infusion rate over 8 hours. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect calculations and do not provide the appropriate infusion rate needed to administer the IV over the specified time period.

5. During a skin assessment, a client expresses concern about skin cancer due to a lesion on the anterior thigh. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider as a possible indication of a skin malignancy?

• A. An uneven shape
• B. A uniformly colored lesion
• C. A lesion that is small and flat
• D. A lesion that is less than 1 cm in diameter

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An uneven shape of a lesion is a common characteristic of malignant skin lesions. Asymmetric or irregularly shaped lesions are concerning for skin cancer and should be reported promptly for further evaluation and management. Choice B, a uniformly colored lesion, is more indicative of a benign lesion as malignant lesions often exhibit variations in color. Choice C, a lesion that is small and flat, does not necessarily indicate malignancy by itself. Choice D, a lesion that is less than 1 cm in diameter, is more suggestive of a benign lesion, as malignant lesions are typically larger in size.

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