Nursing Elites

1. When a parent tells a nurse at the clinic, 'Each morning I offer my 24-month-old child juice, and all I hear is ‘No.’ What should I do because I know my child needs fluid?' What strategy should the nurse suggest?

• A. Offer the child a choice of two juices.
• B. Distract the child with a favorite food.
• C. Offer the child the glass in a firm manner.
• D. Allow the child to see the parent getting angry.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should suggest offering the child a choice of two juices. Giving the child a choice between two options empowers them to make a decision, fostering a sense of control, and increasing the likelihood of cooperation. This approach respects the child's autonomy while addressing the parent's concern about the child's fluid intake. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because distracting the child, offering the glass in a firm manner, or displaying anger are not effective strategies for encouraging a 24-month-old child to drink juice.

2. A nurse is reviewing the immunization schedule of an 11-month-old infant. What immunizations does the nurse expect the infant to have previously received?

• A. Pertussis, tetanus, polio, and measles
• B. Diphtheria, pertussis, tetanus, and polio
• C. Rubella, polio, tuberculosis, and pertussis
• D. Measles, mumps, rubella, and tuberculosis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: By 11 months of age, the recommended vaccines for infants include diphtheria, pertussis, tetanus, and polio. These vaccines are part of the routine immunization schedule to protect infants from serious infectious diseases. Choice A is incorrect because measles is not typically administered at this age. Choice C is incorrect because rubella and tuberculosis are not part of routine infant immunizations. Choice D is incorrect because measles, mumps, and rubella are usually given as a combination vaccine later in childhood, not at 11 months of age.

3. A child with sickle cell anemia develops severe chest pain, fever, a cough, and dyspnea. The nurse's first action is to

• A. administer 100% oxygen to relieve hypoxia
• B. administer pain medication to relieve symptoms
• C. notify the practitioner because chest syndrome is suspected
• D. notify the practitioner because the child may be having a stroke

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a child with sickle cell anemia experiencing severe chest pain, fever, cough, and dyspnea, the priority action is to suspect acute chest syndrome, a life-threatening complication. The nurse's first action should be to notify the practitioner for immediate evaluation and intervention. Administering 100% oxygen (Choice A) may be necessary later but is not the initial priority. Administering pain medication (Choice B) should not precede notifying the practitioner, as addressing the underlying cause is crucial. The symptoms described are more indicative of acute chest syndrome than a stroke, so notifying the practitioner for chest syndrome (Choice C) takes precedence over suspecting a stroke (Choice D).

4. Which best describes a full-thickness (third-degree) burn?

• A. Erythema and pain
• B. Skin showing erythema followed by blister formation
• C. Destruction of all layers of skin evident with extension into subcutaneous tissue
• D. Destruction injury involving underlying structures such as muscle, fascia, and bone

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Full-thickness burns involve the destruction of all layers of skin, extending into the subcutaneous tissue. This type of burn causes severe damage and loss of sensation due to nerve destruction. Choice A, erythema and pain, describes superficial burns (first-degree). Choice B, skin showing erythema followed by blister formation, describes partial-thickness burns (second-degree). Choice D, destruction injury involving underlying structures such as muscle, fascia, and bone, goes beyond the description of full-thickness burns.

5. A healthcare provider is assessing a child with suspected bacterial meningitis. What clinical manifestation is the healthcare provider likely to observe?

• A. Photophobia
• B. High fever
• C. Rash
• D. Nasal congestion

Correct answer: B

Rationale: High fever is a key clinical manifestation of bacterial meningitis due to the inflammatory response in the meninges. Photophobia, choice A, is also commonly observed due to meningeal irritation, but it is not as specific as high fever. Rash, choice C, is more indicative of conditions like meningococcal meningitis rather than bacterial meningitis. Nasal congestion, choice D, is not typically associated with bacterial meningitis. Therefore, the correct answer is B.

Similar Questions