Nursing Elites

1. A parent calls the outpatient clinic requesting information about the appropriate dose of acetaminophen for a 16-month-old child who has signs of an upper respiratory tract infection and fever. The directions on the bottle of acetaminophen elixir are 120 mg every 4 hours when needed. At the toddler’s 15-month visit, the health care provider prescribed 150 mg. What is the nurse’s best response to the parent?

• A. “The dose is close enough, and it doesn’t really matter which one is given.”
• B. “From your description, the medications are not necessary. They should be avoided at this age.”
• C. “It is appropriate to use dosages based on age. Children typically have weights consistent for their age groups.”
• D. “The prescribed dose of the drug was based on weight, and this is a more accurate way of determining a therapeutic dose.”

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most accurate way to determine a therapeutic dose for children is based on their weight rather than age. Weight-based dosing helps ensure that the child receives the appropriate amount of medication for their body size, which is crucial for safety and effectiveness. Age-based dosing can lead to underdosing or overdosing, as children of the same age can have significantly different weights. Choice A is incorrect because even small variations in dosages can have significant effects on a child's health. Choice B is incorrect as acetaminophen can be appropriate when used correctly for fever management in children. Choice C is incorrect as children's weights can vary greatly within the same age group, making weight-based dosing more precise and individualized.

2. Which treatment is instituted for the therapeutic management of minimal change nephrotic syndrome?

• A. corticosteroids
• B. antihypertensive agents
• C. long-term diuretics
• D. increased fluids to promote diuresis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corticosteroids are the mainstay of treatment for minimal change nephrotic syndrome as they help reduce inflammation and decrease proteinuria. Antihypertensive agents are used to manage high blood pressure often associated with kidney disease but are not the primary treatment for this condition. Long-term diuretics are not typically used in the management of minimal change nephrotic syndrome as they can worsen fluid and electrolyte imbalances. Increasing fluids to promote diuresis is not recommended in this condition as it can lead to further fluid retention and edema.

3. Which of the following statements regarding 2-rescuer child CPR is correct?

• A. The chest should not be allowed to fully recoil in between compressions as this may impede venous return.
• B. Compress the chest with one or two hands to a depth equal to one-half to one third the diameter of the chest.
• C. The chest should be compressed with one hand and a compression to ventilation ratio of 30:2 should be delivered.
• D. A compression to ventilation ratio of 15:2 should be delivered without pauses in compressions to deliver ventilations.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct statement regarding 2-rescuer child CPR is to compress the chest with one or two hands to a depth equal to one-half to one third the diameter of the chest. This technique ensures effective chest compressions without causing excessive damage to the chest. Choice A is incorrect because allowing the chest to fully recoil between compressions is essential to facilitate optimal blood flow during CPR. Choice C is incorrect as it describes a compression to ventilation ratio of 30:2, which is not the recommended ratio for child CPR. Choice D is incorrect as a compression to ventilation ratio of 15:2 is not standard practice for child CPR, and pauses in compressions are necessary to provide ventilations effectively.

4. A newborn is diagnosed with metatarsus adductus. The parents ask the nurse how this occurred. Which response by the nurse would be most appropriate?

• A. This condition is due to a genetic defect in the bones.
• B. It's most likely from how the baby was positioned in utero.
• C. They really don't know what causes this condition.
• D. There is probably an underlying deformity of the baby's hip.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Metatarsus adductus is a condition where the front part of the foot is turned inward. It is often caused by the baby's position in the womb, leading to pressure on the foot during fetal development. Choice A is incorrect as metatarsus adductus is not primarily caused by a genetic defect in the bones. Choice C is incorrect as the cause of metatarsus adductus is known to be related to intrauterine positioning. Choice D is incorrect as metatarsus adductus specifically pertains to the foot and not the hip.

5. The nurse is admitting a child with a Wilms tumor. Which is the initial assessment finding associated with this tumor?

• A. Abdominal swelling
• B. Weight gain
• C. Hypotension
• D. Increased urinary output

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Abdominal swelling is frequently the initial assessment finding associated with a Wilms tumor. This swelling is caused by the tumor's mass in the kidney, leading to abdominal distension. Weight gain (Choice B) is less likely as a primary finding, as it may occur later due to tumor growth or fluid retention. Hypotension (Choice C) is not typically associated with Wilms tumor unless severe complications like hemorrhage develop. Increased urinary output (Choice D) is not a common initial finding; instead, hematuria or other urinary changes may be observed later in the disease process.

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