HESI LPN
Practice HESI Fundamentals Exam
1. A client who requires maximal support is being taught how to use a two-wheeled walker by a nurse. Which of the following actions by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. The client moves the walker ahead 25.4 cm with each step
- B. The client picks up the walker with each step
- C. The client stands with elbows slightly bent while holding the walker
- D. The client stoops slightly forward when moving the walker
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. When using a two-wheeled walker, the client should stand with elbows slightly bent to maintain balance and stability. This position helps distribute weight effectively and promotes proper use of the walker. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A does not demonstrate proper posture while using the walker. Choice B of picking up the walker with each step is not the correct technique and can lead to instability. Choice D of stooping slightly forward is also incorrect as it can affect balance and posture negatively.
2. A client is reporting difficulty falling asleep. Which of the following measures should the nurse recommend?
- A. Drink a cup of hot cocoa before bedtime
- B. Exercise 1 hour before going to bed
- C. Use progressive relaxation techniques at bedtime
- D. Reflect on the day's activities before going to bed
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to recommend the client to use progressive relaxation techniques at bedtime. Progressive relaxation techniques help reduce stress and muscle tension, which can promote better sleep. Choice A, drinking a cup of hot cocoa before bedtime, contains caffeine which can interfere with falling asleep. Choice B, exercising 1 hour before going to bed, can stimulate the body and mind, making it harder to fall asleep. Choice D, reflecting on the day's activities before going to bed, may lead to increased mental activity and prevent relaxation, making it difficult to fall asleep.
3. A client with a history of coronary artery disease is experiencing chest pain. What is the priority action for the nurse to take?
- A. Administer oxygen via a nasal cannula.
- B. Measure the client's vital signs.
- C. Obtain a 12-lead ECG.
- D. Encourage the client to use pursed-lip breathing.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering oxygen via a nasal cannula is the priority action for a client experiencing chest pain due to coronary artery disease. Oxygen therapy helps improve oxygenation, reduce myocardial workload, and relieve chest pain by increasing oxygen delivery to the heart muscle. While measuring vital signs, obtaining a 12-lead ECG, and encouraging pursed-lip breathing are important interventions, administering oxygen takes precedence in this situation to address the potential hypoxemia associated with chest pain in a client with a history of coronary artery disease.
4. When caring for a client at the end of life, which statement by the client’s partner reflects effective coping?
- A. I am relying on support from our family during this time.
- B. I am feeling overwhelmed but don’t want to talk about it.
- C. I am managing everything on my own without help.
- D. I prefer to stay alone with my partner.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'I am relying on support from our family during this time.' When a client is at the end of life, relying on support from family can be an effective coping mechanism. It allows the partner to share the emotional burden, seek comfort, and prevent feelings of isolation. Choice B reflects a reluctance to express feelings, which can hinder coping mechanisms by internalizing stress. Choice C suggests handling everything alone, which can lead to burnout and emotional strain due to the overwhelming responsibilities. Choice D, preferring to stay alone with the partner, may limit access to external support that could provide additional emotional and practical assistance during this challenging time, making it a less effective coping strategy.
5. A healthcare provider is monitoring a client for adverse effects following the administration of an opioid. Which of the following effects should the provider identify as an adverse effect of opioids?
- A. Urinary incontinence
- B. Diarrhea
- C. Bradypnea
- D. Orthostatic hypotension
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Orthostatic hypotension. Opioids can cause orthostatic hypotension, leading to a sudden drop in blood pressure when changing positions. This effect is due to the vasodilatory properties of opioids, which can result in decreased blood flow to the brain upon standing up. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Urinary incontinence and diarrhea are not typical adverse effects of opioids. Bradypnea, or slow breathing, is a potential side effect of opioid overdose or respiratory depression, but it is not a common adverse effect following normal opioid administration.
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