Nursing Elites

1. A client who requires maximal support is being taught how to use a two-wheeled walker by a nurse. Which of the following actions by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. The client moves the walker ahead 25.4 cm with each step
• B. The client picks up the walker with each step
• C. The client stands with elbows slightly bent while holding the walker
• D. The client stoops slightly forward when moving the walker

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. When using a two-wheeled walker, the client should stand with elbows slightly bent to maintain balance and stability. This position helps distribute weight effectively and promotes proper use of the walker. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A does not demonstrate proper posture while using the walker. Choice B of picking up the walker with each step is not the correct technique and can lead to instability. Choice D of stooping slightly forward is also incorrect as it can affect balance and posture negatively.

2. When preparing for a change of shift, which document or tools should a healthcare provider use to communicate?

• A. SBAR
• B. SOAP
• C. PIE
• D. DAR

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: SBAR (Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation) is a structured method for communicating information during shift changes. SBAR provides a clear and concise way for healthcare providers to communicate important details about a patient's condition, ensuring that essential information is effectively transferred between providers. Choice B, SOAP (Subjective, Objective, Assessment, Plan), is a method primarily used for documentation in patient charts, not for shift change communication. Choice C, PIE (Problem, Intervention, Evaluation), is a nursing process format for organizing nursing care that focuses on individualized patient care plans, not shift handoff communication. Choice D, DAR (Data, Action, Response), is not a standard format for provider-to-provider handoff communication and is less commonly used in healthcare settings compared to SBAR.

3. A nurse is assessing the heart sounds of a client who has developed chest pain that becomes worse with inspiration. The nurse auscultates a high-pitched scratching sound during both systole and diastole with the diaphragm of the stethoscope positioned at the left sternal border. Which of the following heart sounds should the nurse document?

• A. Pericardial friction rub
• B. Mitral stenosis
• C. Aortic regurgitation
• D. Tricuspid stenosis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Mitral stenosis. A high-pitched scratching sound heard during both systole and diastole with the diaphragm of the stethoscope positioned at the left sternal border indicates mitral stenosis, not a pericardial friction rub. Pericardial friction rub is a to-and-fro, grating, or scratching sound due to inflamed pericardial surfaces rubbing together, typically heard in early diastole and late systole. Aortic regurgitation and tricuspid stenosis would present with different auscultatory findings compared to the described scenario, making them incorrect choices in this context.

4. A nurse in a long-term care facility is planning to perform hygiene care for a new resident. Which of the following assessment questions is the nurse's priority before beginning this procedure?

• A. When do you usually bathe, in the morning or evening?
• B. Do you prefer a bath or a shower?
• C. At what temperature do you prefer your bath water?
• D. Are you able to help with your hygiene care?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The priority assessment question before beginning hygiene care for a new resident is determining if the resident is able to help with their hygiene care. This is essential to ensure the resident's safety during the procedure and prevent any potential injuries. Options A, B, and C, while relevant to providing personalized care, are not as critical as assessing the resident's ability to participate in their own hygiene care. Asking about the resident's ability to assist also promotes their independence and autonomy in self-care activities.

5. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed a diuretic. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the medication?

• A. Monitor serum calcium levels.
• B. Monitor serum potassium levels.
• C. Monitor serum sodium levels.
• D. Monitor serum magnesium levels.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor serum potassium levels. When a client is prescribed a diuretic, monitoring serum potassium levels is essential to evaluate the medication's effectiveness and to detect potential electrolyte imbalances. Diuretics can cause potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia, which can have serious consequences such as cardiac arrhythmias. Monitoring serum calcium levels (Choice A) is not typically required when assessing the effectiveness of diuretics. Similarly, monitoring serum sodium levels (Choice C) is important for other conditions but is not the primary concern when evaluating diuretic therapy. Monitoring serum magnesium levels (Choice D) is also important, but potassium levels are more critical in assessing diuretic effectiveness and preventing complications.

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