HESI LPN
Practice HESI Fundamentals Exam
1. A client who requires maximal support is being taught how to use a two-wheeled walker by a nurse. Which of the following actions by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. The client moves the walker ahead 25.4 cm with each step
- B. The client picks up the walker with each step
- C. The client stands with elbows slightly bent while holding the walker
- D. The client stoops slightly forward when moving the walker
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. When using a two-wheeled walker, the client should stand with elbows slightly bent to maintain balance and stability. This position helps distribute weight effectively and promotes proper use of the walker. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A does not demonstrate proper posture while using the walker. Choice B of picking up the walker with each step is not the correct technique and can lead to instability. Choice D of stooping slightly forward is also incorrect as it can affect balance and posture negatively.
2. The healthcare provider is caring for a 17-month-old with acetaminophen poisoning. Which lab reports should the healthcare provider review first?
- A. Prothrombin time (PT) and partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
- B. Red blood cell and white blood cell counts
- C. Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels
- D. Liver enzymes (AST and ALT)
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In acetaminophen poisoning, liver damage is a significant concern due to the toxic effects of the drug on the liver. Liver enzymes such as AST (aspartate aminotransferase) and ALT (alanine aminotransferase) are essential markers to assess liver function and damage. Monitoring these enzymes early is crucial to detect hepatotoxicity and guide further management. Prothrombin time and partial thromboplastin time are coagulation studies and are not the priority in acetaminophen poisoning. Red and white blood cell counts are not specific to assess liver damage in this context. Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels are primarily used to evaluate kidney function, which is not the primary concern in acetaminophen poisoning.
3. A client is being taught how to administer ear drops. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the client understands?
- A. I will straighten my ear canal by pulling my ear down and back.
- B. I will gently apply pressure with my finger to the front part of my ear after putting in the drops.
- C. I will insert the nozzle of the ear drop bottle snugly into my ear before squeezing the drops in.
- D. After the drops are in, I will place a cotton ball all the way into my ear canal.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Gently applying pressure to the front part of the ear after administering drops helps with absorption. Pulling the ear down and back is a correct technique for adults. Snugly inserting the nozzle of the ear drop bottle or placing a cotton ball all the way into the ear canal is unnecessary and can potentially cause harm or discomfort. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect.
4. A patient is placed in the Sims' position. Which areas will the nurse observe for pressure points?
- A. Chin, elbow, hips
- B. Ileum, clavicle, humerus
- C. Shoulder, anterior iliac spine, ankles
- D. Occipital region of the head, coccyx, heels
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a patient is placed in the Sims' position, the nurse should observe pressure points on the ileum, clavicle, humerus, knees, and ankles. Choice A is incorrect as the chin and hips are not typically pressure points in the Sims' position. Choice C is incorrect as the shoulder and anterior iliac spine are not commonly observed pressure points in this position. Choice D is also incorrect as the occipital region of the head, coccyx, and heels are not pressure points commonly associated with the Sims' position.
5. An 18-year-old client is admitted to the intensive care unit from the emergency room following a diving accident. The injury is suspected to be at the level of the 2nd cervical vertebra. The nurse's priority assessment should be
- A. Response to stimuli
- B. Bladder control
- C. Respiratory function
- D. Muscle strength
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Injuries at the level of the 2nd cervical vertebra can affect the phrenic nerve, leading to potential impairment of respiratory function. Assessing respiratory function is crucial as compromised breathing can quickly escalate to life-threatening situations. While response to stimuli is important, ensuring adequate oxygenation takes precedence due to the immediate threat to life. Bladder control may be affected by spinal cord injuries at higher levels, but it is not the priority in this scenario. Muscle strength is a potential consequence of cervical spinal cord injury, but assessing respiratory function is more critical in the acute phase.
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