Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is reviewing the medical records of a group of older adults (OA). The provider should identify that which of the following is a risk factor that places OA at an increased risk for developing infections?

• A. Improved circulation
• B. Increased immune function
• C. Lowered immune system function
• D. Dehydration

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Lowered immune system function.' As individuals age, their immune system tends to weaken, making them more susceptible to infections. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because improved circulation and increased immune function would typically reduce the risk of infections, while dehydration can impact overall health but is not directly related to immune system function in the context of infection risk.

2. When teaching about safety risks for adolescents, what should be included?

• A. Adolescents are more likely to follow rules
• B. Peer influence to participate in high-risk behaviors can lead to injury
• C. Most injuries occur during sports activities
• D. Adolescents are aware of the dangers of substance use

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When educating about safety risks for adolescents, it is crucial to address the impact of peer influence on engaging in high-risk behaviors, which can result in injuries. Choice A is incorrect because adolescents are known to sometimes take risks and not always follow rules. Choice C is incorrect as injuries among adolescents can also happen outside of sports activities. Choice D is incorrect as adolescents may not always be fully aware of the dangers of substance use.

3. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who is receiving heparin therapy for deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following laboratory values should the provider monitor to evaluate the therapeutic effect of the heparin?

• A. Platelet count
• B. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
• C. Prothrombin time (PT)
• D. Bleeding time

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT) is the correct laboratory value to monitor heparin therapy. PTT measures the time it takes for blood to clot and is specifically used to evaluate the effectiveness of anticoagulation therapy such as heparin. Monitoring the PTT helps ensure that the heparin dose is within the therapeutic range. Platelet count, Prothrombin time (PT), and Bleeding time are not specific laboratory values for monitoring the therapeutic effect of heparin therapy. Platelet count is more indicative of platelet function, PT is used to monitor warfarin therapy, and Bleeding time assesses platelet function rather than the effect of heparin therapy.

4. A client is experiencing suicidal thoughts and states, 'Why not end my misery?' What is the best response by the nurse?

• A. Why do you think your life isn’t worth living anymore?
• B. Do you have a plan to end your life?
• C. I need to understand what you mean by misery.
• D. You can trust me to share your thoughts.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Do you have a plan to end your life?' When a client expresses suicidal thoughts, it is crucial to assess the immediate risk. Inquiring about a specific plan can help determine the seriousness of the situation. Choice A is less direct and may not provide a clear indication of the immediate risk. Choice C focuses on the interpretation of 'misery' rather than assessing the risk of suicide. Choice D offers support but does not address the critical assessment of the client's immediate safety.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for vancomycin 1 g IV every 12 hours. The client is scheduled to have the morning dose at 0700. The nurse should schedule the trough level to be drawn at which of the following times?

• A. 2100
• B. 900
• C. 1300
• D. 1800

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The trough level of vancomycin should be drawn just before the next dose is administered, typically about 30 minutes before the scheduled dose. Since the morning dose is at 0700, the trough level should be drawn at 1800. This timing ensures an accurate measurement of the lowest concentration of the drug in the client's system before the next dose is given. Choice A (2100) is too close to the next dose, choice B (900) is too early, and choice C (1300) is also too far from the next dose.

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