Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is reviewing the medical records of a group of older adults (OA). The provider should identify that which of the following is a risk factor that places OA at an increased risk for developing infections?

• A. Improved circulation
• B. Increased immune function
• C. Lowered immune system function
• D. Dehydration

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Lowered immune system function.' As individuals age, their immune system tends to weaken, making them more susceptible to infections. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because improved circulation and increased immune function would typically reduce the risk of infections, while dehydration can impact overall health but is not directly related to immune system function in the context of infection risk.

2. A client who is at 24 weeks of gestation is being taught about the signs of preterm labor. Which of the following should the nurse include?

• A. Sudden weight loss
• B. Regular contractions
• C. Shortness of breath
• D. Vaginal spotting

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Regular contractions. Regular contractions before 37 weeks of gestation are a significant sign of preterm labor. It is essential for clients to be aware of this symptom and report it promptly to their healthcare provider. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because sudden weight loss, shortness of breath, and vaginal spotting are not typical signs of preterm labor. Teaching clients about the specific signs of preterm labor can help in early detection and intervention, ultimately improving outcomes for both the client and the baby.

3. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a chest tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to ensure proper functioning of the chest tube?

• A. Clamp the chest tube intermittently.
• B. Keep the drainage system below chest level.
• C. Empty the drainage chamber every 4 hours.
• D. Apply sterile gauze around the insertion site daily.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To ensure proper functioning of a chest tube, the nurse should keep the drainage system below chest level. This position allows for proper drainage by gravity and prevents backflow into the pleural space. Clamping the chest tube intermittently can lead to a buildup of pressure and should be avoided. Emptying the drainage chamber every 4 hours is important but not directly related to maintaining the chest tube's function. Applying sterile gauze around the insertion site daily is essential for infection prevention but does not specifically ensure the proper functioning of the chest tube.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has a deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Encourage the client to ambulate frequently.
• B. Apply warm, moist compresses to the affected leg.
• C. Massage the affected leg.
• D. Place the client in a supine position.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is to apply warm, moist compresses to the affected leg. This helps alleviate pain and improve circulation in the affected area, aiding in the treatment of DVT. Encouraging the client to ambulate frequently (Choice A) is contraindicated as it can dislodge the clot and lead to complications. Massaging the affected leg (Choice C) is also contraindicated as it can dislodge the clot and potentially cause an embolism. Placing the client in a supine position (Choice D) is not specifically indicated for DVT treatment; elevation of the affected leg is preferred over placing the client completely supine.

5. A client in labor has an epidural for pain control. Which of the following clinical manifestations is an adverse effect of epidural anesthesia?

• A. Polyuria
• B. Hypertension
• C. Pruritus
• D. Dry mouth

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Pruritus is a common adverse effect of epidural anesthesia, often due to the opioids administered with the epidural. It presents as itching on the skin and can cause significant discomfort to the client. Polyuria (excessive urination) and dry mouth are not typical adverse effects of epidural anesthesia. Hypertension is not commonly associated with epidural anesthesia; in fact, hypotension is a more frequent complication due to sympathetic blockade. Therefore, the correct answer is pruritus (choice C), as it is a known adverse effect of epidural anesthesia.

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