ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 B
1. A healthcare provider is reviewing the medical records of a group of older adults (OA). The provider should identify that which of the following is a risk factor that places OA at an increased risk for developing infections?
- A. Improved circulation
- B. Increased immune function
- C. Lowered immune system function
- D. Dehydration
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Lowered immune system function.' As individuals age, their immune system tends to weaken, making them more susceptible to infections. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because improved circulation and increased immune function would typically reduce the risk of infections, while dehydration can impact overall health but is not directly related to immune system function in the context of infection risk.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who is taking warfarin. The nurse notes that the client has a new prescription for amoxicillin. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse monitor closely?
- A. Serum potassium
- B. Prothrombin time (PT)
- C. Serum sodium
- D. Blood glucose
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prothrombin time (PT). Amoxicillin can potentiate the effects of warfarin, increasing the risk of bleeding. Monitoring the prothrombin time (PT) is crucial in this situation to assess the client's clotting ability. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because amoxicillin's interaction with warfarin does not directly impact serum potassium, serum sodium, or blood glucose levels.
3. A healthcare professional is assessing a client in the PACU. Which finding indicates decreased cardiac output?
- A. Shivering
- B. Oliguria
- C. Bradypnea
- D. Constricted pupils
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Oliguria. Oliguria (low urine output) is a sign of decreased cardiac output because the kidneys are not receiving enough blood to produce an adequate amount of urine. Shivering (choice A) is a response to hypothermia or the body's attempt to generate heat. Bradypnea (choice C) refers to abnormally slow breathing rate and is not directly related to cardiac output. Constricted pupils (choice D) are more indicative of conditions affecting the nervous system or medications.
4. A nurse is caring for a client receiving oxytocin IV for labor augmentation. The client’s contractions are occurring every 45 seconds and lasting 90 seconds. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Discontinue the oxytocin infusion
- B. Increase the oxytocin infusion
- C. Decrease the oxytocin infusion
- D. Maintain the oxytocin infusion
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, the client is experiencing uterine hyperstimulation with contractions every 45 seconds lasting 90 seconds. This frequency and duration of contractions can lead to fetal distress. The appropriate nursing action is to discontinue the oxytocin infusion immediately to prevent complications. Increasing or maintaining the oxytocin infusion would exacerbate the situation, while decreasing it may not be sufficient to address the issue effectively.
5. A nurse is preparing to administer a dose of insulin. Which of the following should the nurse do first?
- A. Check the expiration date
- B. Verify the client's blood glucose level
- C. Obtain the client's weight
- D. Assess for signs of hypoglycemia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to verify the client's blood glucose level first before administering insulin. This step is crucial to determine the appropriate dose of insulin based on the client's current blood glucose level. Checking the expiration date (Choice A) is important but not the first step in this scenario. Obtaining the client's weight (Choice C) is not directly related to the immediate administration of insulin. Assessing for signs of hypoglycemia (Choice D) should be done after administering insulin to monitor for potential side effects or adverse reactions.
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