ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 B
1. A healthcare provider is reviewing the medical records of a group of older adults (OA). The provider should identify that which of the following is a risk factor that places OA at an increased risk for developing infections?
- A. Improved circulation
- B. Increased immune function
- C. Lowered immune system function
- D. Dehydration
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Lowered immune system function.' As individuals age, their immune system tends to weaken, making them more susceptible to infections. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because improved circulation and increased immune function would typically reduce the risk of infections, while dehydration can impact overall health but is not directly related to immune system function in the context of infection risk.
2. What is an example of a culturally sensitive response from a healthcare provider when a patient mentions feeling uncomfortable with a treatment plan?
- A. Asking why they feel this way
- B. Explaining that the treatment is standard
- C. Inviting the patient to share concerns
- D. Offering alternative treatments
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Inviting the patient to share concerns is an example of a culturally sensitive response as it acknowledges the patient's feelings and provides a safe space for them to express their discomfort. This approach shows respect for the patient's cultural beliefs and values by valuing their perspective. Choice A, asking why they feel this way, can be perceived as confrontational and may not encourage open communication. Choice B, explaining that the treatment is standard, dismisses the patient's feelings and does not address their discomfort. Choice D, offering alternative treatments, may be premature without fully understanding the patient's concerns first.
3. A nurse is caring for a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which action should the nurse take?
- A. Position the client with the affected extremity lower than the heart
- B. Administer acetaminophen for pain
- C. Massage the affected extremity every 4 hours
- D. Withhold heparin IV infusion
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Withholding heparin IV infusion is the priority if there is a risk of complications such as bleeding, which must be evaluated before continuing treatment.
4. A nurse is teaching a client about the use of gabapentin. Which of the following should be included?
- A. It can cause drowsiness
- B. It has no side effects
- C. It is a pain reliever
- D. It can be taken with food
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'It can cause drowsiness.' Gabapentin is known to cause drowsiness, and clients should be warned about this side effect. Choice B is incorrect because gabapentin, like any medication, can have side effects. Choice C is incorrect because although gabapentin is used for pain management, it is not classified as a pain reliever. Choice D is incorrect because gabapentin should be taken as prescribed by the healthcare provider, and specific instructions regarding food intake should be provided based on individual needs.
5. A healthcare professional is assessing a client in the PACU. Which finding indicates decreased cardiac output?
- A. Shivering
- B. Oliguria
- C. Bradypnea
- D. Constricted pupils
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Oliguria. Oliguria (low urine output) is a sign of decreased cardiac output because the kidneys are not receiving enough blood to produce an adequate amount of urine. Shivering (choice A) is a response to hypothermia or the body's attempt to generate heat. Bradypnea (choice C) refers to abnormally slow breathing rate and is not directly related to cardiac output. Constricted pupils (choice D) are more indicative of conditions affecting the nervous system or medications.
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