Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client in a mental health facility. The client’s daughter is crying and tells the nurse that she feels guilty for leaving her father in the hospital. Which of the following is an appropriate response?

• A. I’d like to know more about what’s bothering you.
• B. Why are you feeling this way?
• C. You did the right thing by bringing him here.
• D. I’m sure your father doesn’t blame you.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response is A: 'I’d like to know more about what’s bothering you.' Encouraging the daughter to express her feelings allows her to explore her emotions, which can be helpful in addressing her guilt and providing emotional support. Choice B is not as open-ended and may come across as confrontational. Choice C may invalidate the daughter's feelings of guilt by implying she shouldn't feel that way. Choice D assumes the father's emotions and may not address the daughter's feelings of guilt effectively.

2. A nurse is preparing to administer a dose of ampicillin. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Administer it with food
• B. Check for penicillin allergy
• C. Monitor liver function
• D. Administer it intramuscularly

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to 'Check for penicillin allergy.' Before administering ampicillin, it is crucial to assess the patient for any history of penicillin allergy. This is essential to prevent an adverse allergic reaction, as ampicillin belongs to the penicillin class of antibiotics. Administering ampicillin with food (Choice A) is not a standard requirement and does not impact its effectiveness. Monitoring liver function (Choice C) is not directly related to the immediate pre-administration assessment for ampicillin. Administering ampicillin intramuscularly (Choice D) is not typically the route of administration for this antibiotic, as it is usually given intravenously or orally.

3. A nurse is caring for a postmenopausal client prescribed the aromatase inhibitor anastrozole for the treatment of breast cancer. Which of the following should the nurse inform the client she may experience?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Muscle and joint pain
• C. Night sweats
• D. Increased appetite

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Muscle and joint pain. Muscle and joint pain are common side effects of aromatase inhibitors like anastrozole. These side effects can be managed with analgesics as prescribed by the healthcare provider. Weight gain (choice A) is not typically associated with anastrozole. Night sweats (choice C) are also not commonly reported with this medication. Increased appetite (choice D) is not a common side effect of anastrozole.

4. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will decrease my intake of foods that are high in phosphorus
• B. I will increase my intake of foods that are high in potassium
• C. I will decrease my intake of foods that are high in iron
• D. I will increase my intake of calcium supplements

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Clients with chronic kidney disease should limit their intake of phosphorus because high phosphorus levels can lead to bone disease and cardiovascular problems. Increasing foods high in potassium (choice B) is not recommended as it can be harmful to individuals with kidney disease. Decreasing intake of foods high in iron (choice C) is not specifically indicated for chronic kidney disease. Increasing calcium supplements (choice D) may not be necessary and can potentially lead to hypercalcemia in individuals with kidney disease.

5. A nurse is caring for four clients. Which of the following client data should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Client who has pleurisy and reports pain of 6 on a scale of 0 to 10
• B. Client with 110 mL of serosanguineous fluid from a Jackson Pratt drain within the first 24 hours after surgery
• C. Client who is 4 hours postoperative and has a heart rate of 98 bpm
• D. Client who has a prescription for chemotherapy and an absolute neutrophil count of 75/mm3

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An absolute neutrophil count of 75/mm3 indicates severe neutropenia, which puts the client at high risk of infection and requires immediate intervention. Neutropenia increases the susceptibility to infections due to a significant decrease in neutrophils, which are essential for fighting off bacteria and other pathogens. Reporting this critical lab value promptly to the provider is essential to ensure appropriate interventions are initiated to prevent life-threatening infections. Choices A, B, and C do not present immediate life-threatening conditions that require urgent reporting to the provider.

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