a client is in active labor and is receiving an epidural for pain relief which of the following should the nurse monitor as the priority
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Nursing Elites

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PN ATI Capstone Maternal Newborn

1. A client is in active labor and is receiving an epidural for pain relief. Which of the following should the nurse monitor as the priority?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most common side effect of an epidural is hypotension, which can compromise placental perfusion. Monitoring the client's blood pressure is the priority to ensure maternal and fetal well-being. Fetal heart rate is important but monitoring the client's blood pressure takes precedence due to the risk of hypotension. Respiratory rate and pain level monitoring are also important but not the priority in this scenario.

2. A client has been prescribed raloxiphene. As the nurse, you know that raloxiphene is used to treat:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Raloxiphene (Evista) is a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) used primarily to prevent and treat osteoporosis in postmenopausal women. It helps to maintain bone density and reduce the risk of fractures by mimicking the effects of estrogen on bone tissue. It is not indicated for the treatment of migraines, hypertension, or heart disease. Therefore, the correct answer is osteoporosis (Choice C). Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as raloxiphene is not used to treat migraines, hypertension, or heart disease.

3. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a prescription for home oxygen. Which information should the nurse teach?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Wear cotton socks when the oxygen is in use.' This information is important as wearing cotton socks helps prevent static electricity, which can pose a fire risk when oxygen is in use. Choice A is incorrect as using a humidifier with oxygen is not necessary for all clients and may not be part of standard discharge teaching. Choice C is incorrect as it is a common safety measure to avoid all types of smoking materials when using oxygen. Choice D is incorrect as using a nasal cannula during meals is not specifically related to the safety concerns associated with home oxygen use.

4. A healthcare professional is reviewing the lab report of a client who has been experiencing a fever for the last 3 days. What lab result indicates the client is experiencing fluid volume deficit (FVD)?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An increased hematocrit level indicates dehydration or fluid volume deficit. Hematocrit measures the proportion of blood volume that is occupied by red blood cells, and when a client is experiencing fluid volume deficit, there is less fluid in the blood, causing the concentration of red blood cells to be higher, leading to an increased hematocrit level. Decreased hematocrit (Choice A) is more indicative of fluid volume excess. Increased BUN (Choice B) is associated with renal function and dehydration but is not a direct indicator of FVD. Decreased urine specific gravity (Choice D) is also associated with dehydration, but an increased hematocrit is a more specific indicator of fluid volume deficit.

5. A client is prescribed digoxin for heart failure. Which of the following should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Apical pulse. Digoxin's primary effect is to strengthen the force of the heart's contractions and slow the heart rate. Monitoring the apical pulse is crucial in evaluating the effectiveness of digoxin as it helps assess the medication's impact on the heart's function. Option A, respiratory rate, is not directly related to digoxin's mechanism of action and is not the most appropriate parameter to monitor for this medication. Option B, blood pressure, while important, may not be as sensitive as the apical pulse in assessing the effectiveness of digoxin. Option D, urine output, is more indicative of kidney function and fluid balance, rather than the direct effectiveness of digoxin in heart failure.

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