Nursing Elites

1. A client is in active labor and is receiving an epidural for pain relief. Which of the following should the nurse monitor as the priority?

• A. Fetal heart rate
• B. Client's blood pressure
• C. Client's respiratory rate
• D. Client's pain level

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most common side effect of an epidural is hypotension, which can compromise placental perfusion. Monitoring the client's blood pressure is the priority to ensure maternal and fetal well-being. Fetal heart rate is important but monitoring the client's blood pressure takes precedence due to the risk of hypotension. Respiratory rate and pain level monitoring are also important but not the priority in this scenario.

2. A nurse is updating a plan of care after evaluating a client who has dysphagia. Which interventions should the nurse include in the plan?

• A. Have the client lie down after meals
• B. Encourage the client to speak while eating
• C. Have the client sit upright for 1 hour following meals
• D. Offer thin liquids with meals

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with dysphagia is to have them sit upright for 1 hour following meals. This position facilitates swallowing and reduces the risk of aspiration. Choice A is incorrect because having the client lie down after meals can increase the risk of aspiration. Choice B is incorrect as talking while eating can lead to choking. Choice D is incorrect as thin liquids may be harder for a client with dysphagia to swallow safely.

3. A healthcare professional is assessing a client in the PACU. Which of the following findings indicates decreased cardiac output?

• A. Shivering
• B. Oliguria
• C. Bradypnea
• D. Constricted pupils

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Oliguria (low urine output) is a sign of decreased cardiac output because the kidneys are not being adequately perfused, leading to reduced urine production. Shivering (choice A) is a response to hypothermia, not directly related to cardiac output. Bradypnea (choice C) refers to abnormally slow breathing rate and is not a direct indicator of decreased cardiac output. Constricted pupils (choice D) can be caused by medications or sympathetic nervous system stimulation but are not specific to decreased cardiac output.

4. A client is being taught about the use of nitroglycerin. Which of the following should be included?

• A. Take it with food
• B. Place the tablet under the tongue
• C. It can be stored in the refrigerator
• D. It has no side effects

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to place the nitroglycerin tablet under the tongue. Nitroglycerin tablets are meant for sublingual absorption during angina episodes to provide quick relief. Option A is incorrect because nitroglycerin should not be taken with food. Option C is incorrect as nitroglycerin should be stored in a cool, dark place, not in the refrigerator. Option D is incorrect because nitroglycerin can have side effects, including headaches, dizziness, and low blood pressure.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has peptic ulcer disease (PUD) and is prescribed sucralfate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Take sucralfate with an antacid.
• B. Take sucralfate 1 hour before meals.
• C. Take sucralfate with food.
• D. Take sucralfate at bedtime only.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Sucralfate should be taken on an empty stomach, 1 hour before meals. This timing allows sucralfate to form a protective barrier over the ulcer, enhancing healing. Choice A is incorrect because sucralfate should not be taken with an antacid. Choice C is incorrect because sucralfate should not be taken with food. Choice D is incorrect because sucralfate should not be taken at bedtime only; it is best absorbed on an empty stomach.

Similar Questions