Nursing Elites

1. A client is in active labor and is receiving an epidural for pain relief. Which of the following should the nurse monitor as the priority?

• A. Fetal heart rate
• B. Client's blood pressure
• C. Client's respiratory rate
• D. Client's pain level

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most common side effect of an epidural is hypotension, which can compromise placental perfusion. Monitoring the client's blood pressure is the priority to ensure maternal and fetal well-being. Fetal heart rate is important but monitoring the client's blood pressure takes precedence due to the risk of hypotension. Respiratory rate and pain level monitoring are also important but not the priority in this scenario.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has been prescribed furosemide. Which of the following foods should the nurse encourage the client to include in their diet?

• A. Table salt
• B. Egg yolks
• C. White wine
• D. Oranges

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Furosemide is a potassium-wasting diuretic, so clients should consume potassium-rich foods like oranges to prevent hypokalemia. Oranges are a good source of potassium. Table salt, egg yolks, and white wine do not provide significant amounts of potassium and are not beneficial for a client taking furosemide.

3. A nurse is discussing immunity with a client who has received an immunization. The nurse should identify that an immunization functions as part of which type of immunity?

• A. Innate immunity
• B. Passive immunity
• C. Acquired immunity
• D. Natural immunity

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Acquired immunity. Acquired immunity occurs when an individual is given a vaccine or immunization to develop antibodies. This type of immunity is specific and develops after exposure to an antigen. Innate immunity (choice A) is the body's natural defense system present at birth. Passive immunity (choice B) is temporary immunity passed from one individual to another. Natural immunity (choice D) refers to immunity that is not gained through medical intervention or deliberate exposure.

4. A client with a new diagnosis of heart failure is prescribed furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication in the morning.
• B. Increase intake of potassium-rich foods.
• C. Report a decrease in urine output.
• D. Expect swelling in the lower extremities.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to increase their intake of potassium-rich foods. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to potassium loss, which may cause hypokalemia. Increasing potassium intake can help prevent this electrolyte imbalance. Choice A is incorrect because furosemide is usually taken in the morning to prevent sleep disturbances due to increased urination. Choice C is incorrect because a decrease in urine output could indicate a problem and should be reported immediately. Choice D is incorrect because furosemide is used to reduce swelling in the body, including the lower extremities, so expecting swelling is not appropriate.

5. A nurse in an outpatient facility is assessing a client who is prescribed furosemide 40 mg daily, but the client reports she has been taking extra doses to promote weight loss. Which of the following findings indicates she is dehydrated?

• A. Urine specific gravity of 1.020
• B. Urine specific gravity of 1.035
• C. Decreased skin turgor
• D. Decreased heart rate

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A urine specific gravity greater than 1.030 is indicative of dehydration as it reflects concentrated urine. Choice A is incorrect as a specific gravity of 1.020 is within the normal range. Choice C, decreased skin turgor, can be a sign of dehydration but is not as specific as urine specific gravity. Choice D, decreased heart rate, is not typically a direct indicator of dehydration.

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