Nursing Elites

1. A client is in active labor and is receiving an epidural for pain relief. Which of the following should the nurse monitor as the priority?

• A. Fetal heart rate
• B. Client's blood pressure
• C. Client's respiratory rate
• D. Client's pain level

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most common side effect of an epidural is hypotension, which can compromise placental perfusion. Monitoring the client's blood pressure is the priority to ensure maternal and fetal well-being. Fetal heart rate is important but monitoring the client's blood pressure takes precedence due to the risk of hypotension. Respiratory rate and pain level monitoring are also important but not the priority in this scenario.

2. A client has a prescription for sertraline to treat depression. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the medication treatment plan?

• A. I will start feeling better immediately after starting the medication
• B. I can expect to urinate frequently while on this medication
• C. I understand I may experience difficulty sleeping on this medication
• D. I should decrease my sodium intake while on this medication

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Difficulty sleeping is a common side effect of sertraline, an SSRI used to treat depression. Clients should be educated to expect this, especially during the early stages of treatment. Choice A is incorrect because sertraline may take a few weeks to show its full effect. Choice B is incorrect as increased urination is not a common side effect of sertraline. Choice D is unrelated to the side effects or management of sertraline.

3. A client who gave birth 12 hours ago is experiencing excessive vaginal bleeding. Which of the following findings indicates the client is experiencing decreased cardiac output?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Flushed face
• C. Hypotension
• D. Polyuria

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Hypotension is a key indicator of decreased cardiac output, especially in the context of postpartum hemorrhage, which can lead to significant fluid volume loss and compromise perfusion. In this scenario, the excessive vaginal bleeding could lead to hypovolemia, resulting in decreased cardiac output and subsequent hypotension. Bradycardia (choice A) is not typically associated with decreased cardiac output in this scenario, as the body often compensates for decreased cardiac output by increasing heart rate. A flushed face (choice B) may indicate vasodilation but is not a direct indicator of decreased cardiac output. Polyuria (choice D) is excessive urination and is not a specific indicator of decreased cardiac output in this context.

4. A nurse receives a change-of-shift report. Which of the following clients should the nurse attend to first?

• A. A client who reports tingling in the fingers following a thyroidectomy
• B. A client who has dark, foul-smelling urine with a urine output of 320 mL in the last 8 hr
• C. A client who is in a long leg cast and reports cool feet bilaterally
• D. A client who has a productive cough and an oral temperature of 36°C (96.8°F)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Cool feet bilaterally in a client with a long leg cast may indicate compromised circulation, which is a medical emergency that requires immediate intervention. Choices A, B, and D do not present immediate life-threatening conditions. Tingling in the fingers following a thyroidectomy may indicate hypocalcemia but does not require immediate attention. Dark, foul-smelling urine with decreased urine output indicates a possible urinary tract infection or dehydration but can be addressed after attending to the client with compromised circulation. A productive cough and a normal oral temperature do not suggest an urgent condition compared to compromised circulation in a client with a long leg cast.

5. A nurse is providing dietary teaching for a client who has chronic cholecystitis. Which of the following diets should the nurse recommend?

• A. Low potassium diet
• B. High fiber diet
• C. Low fat diet
• D. Low sodium diet

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Low fat diet.' A client with chronic cholecystitis should follow a low-fat diet to decrease the frequency of biliary colic episodes. Fats can trigger the release of cholecystokinin, which stimulates the gallbladder to contract, potentially causing pain in individuals with cholecystitis. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. A low potassium diet is prescribed for individuals with specific kidney conditions or on certain medications. A high fiber diet is beneficial for conditions like constipation, diverticulosis, or to promote general bowel health. A low sodium diet is often recommended for conditions like hypertension or heart failure to reduce fluid retention.

Similar Questions