Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results for a client who has end-stage liver disease. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Elevated albumin
• B. Elevated ammonia
• C. Decreased total bilirubin
• D. Decreased prothrombin time

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In end-stage liver disease, the liver's inability to convert ammonia into urea leads to elevated ammonia levels. Elevated ammonia levels can result in hepatic encephalopathy, a serious complication. Therefore, the correct answer is B. Elevated albumin (Choice A) is not typically seen in end-stage liver disease as liver dysfunction often leads to decreased albumin levels. Decreased total bilirubin (Choice C) is unlikely in end-stage liver disease, as bilirubin levels tend to be elevated due to impaired liver function. Decreased prothrombin time (Choice D) is also not expected in end-stage liver disease, as impaired liver function results in prolonged prothrombin time.

2. When planning to discharge a client receiving home oxygen therapy, which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?

• A. Ensure that electrical cords are not frayed
• B. Keep oxygen tanks in a horizontal position
• C. Store extra oxygen tanks in a closed closet
• D. Apply petroleum-based gel to the inside of the nostrils

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to ensure that electrical cords are not frayed. Frayed electrical cords pose a fire hazard when oxygen is in use. Keeping oxygen tanks in a horizontal position (Choice B) is important to prevent leaks but is not the priority compared to fire safety. Storing extra oxygen tanks in a closed closet (Choice C) is also important but not as immediate as preventing fire hazards. Applying petroleum-based gel to the inside of the nostrils (Choice D) is unrelated to oxygen therapy safety and is not recommended.

3. A nurse is caring for a client in active labor. The nurse notes variable decelerations in the fetal heart rate. Which of the following is the priority nursing action?

• A. Administer oxygen
• B. Reposition the client
• C. Prepare for delivery
• D. Increase IV fluids

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to reposition the client. Variable decelerations are often caused by umbilical cord compression. Repositioning the client can help alleviate pressure on the cord and improve fetal oxygenation. Administering oxygen may be necessary in some situations, but repositioning the client takes precedence to address the underlying cause of variable decelerations. While preparing for delivery is important, addressing the immediate concern of variable decelerations by repositioning the client is the priority. Increasing IV fluids is not the priority in this situation as it does not directly address the cause of variable decelerations.

4. A client had a pituitary tumor removed. Which of the following findings requires further assessment?

• A. Glasgow scale score of 15
• B. Blood drainage on dressing measuring 3 cm
• C. Report of dry mouth
• D. Urinary output greater than fluid intake

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Increased urinary output greater than fluid intake can indicate diabetes insipidus, a common complication after pituitary surgery. Diabetes insipidus is characterized by the excretion of a large volume of dilute urine, leading to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. This finding requires immediate assessment and intervention. Choice A, a Glasgow scale score of 15, indicates normal neurological functioning. Choice B, blood drainage on dressing measuring 3 cm, may require monitoring but is not a priority over the potential complication of diabetes insipidus. Choice C, a report of dry mouth, is a common complaint postoperatively and can be managed with oral care measures.

5. A nurse is planning a staff education session regarding biological weapons of mass destruction. What should the nurse include in the session?

• A. Rabies, cholera, meningitis
• B. Smallpox, anthrax, botulism
• C. Ebola, hepatitis B, tetanus
• D. Tuberculosis, influenza, measles

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Smallpox, anthrax, botulism. These are known biological weapons that can be used in mass casualty situations. Rabies, cholera, and meningitis (Choice A) are not typically used as biological weapons. Ebola, hepatitis B, and tetanus (Choice C) are serious diseases but are not commonly associated with biological warfare. Tuberculosis, influenza, and measles (Choice D) are infectious diseases but are not typically used as biological weapons of mass destruction.

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