a nurse is reviewing the laboratory results for a client who has end stage liver disease which of the following findings should the nurse expect
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PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment B Quizlet

1. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results for a client who has end-stage liver disease. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In end-stage liver disease, the liver's inability to convert ammonia into urea leads to elevated ammonia levels. Elevated ammonia levels can result in hepatic encephalopathy, a serious complication. Therefore, the correct answer is B. Elevated albumin (Choice A) is not typically seen in end-stage liver disease as liver dysfunction often leads to decreased albumin levels. Decreased total bilirubin (Choice C) is unlikely in end-stage liver disease, as bilirubin levels tend to be elevated due to impaired liver function. Decreased prothrombin time (Choice D) is also not expected in end-stage liver disease, as impaired liver function results in prolonged prothrombin time.

2. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a dose of potassium chloride. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action when administering potassium chloride is to dilute the medication before administration. Potassium chloride is a highly concentrated solution that can cause irritation and potential complications if not properly diluted. Administering it rapidly (choice A) can lead to adverse effects. Giving it as a bolus (choice C) or administering it intramuscularly (choice D) are inappropriate routes for potassium chloride administration and can result in harm to the patient.

3. A nurse in the emergency department is prioritizing care for four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse see first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client with slurred speech, disorientation, and a headache may be experiencing a stroke, a life-threatening condition that requires immediate attention. Identifying and managing a stroke promptly can reduce the risk of long-term disability or complications. The other options, although important, do not present immediate life-threatening conditions that require urgent intervention. A dislocated shoulder, severe joint pain in sickle cell disease, confusion with fever and foul-smelling urine, while concerning, can be addressed after attending to the client with potential stroke symptoms.

4. A healthcare provider is caring for a client with severe preeclampsia. Which of the following medications should the healthcare provider anticipate administering?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Magnesium sulfate is the correct answer as it is administered to prevent seizures in clients with severe preeclampsia. It acts as a central nervous system depressant and is the first-line treatment for eclampsia prevention. Oxytocin (Choice B) is used to induce or augment labor, not indicated specifically for preeclampsia. Misoprostol (Choice C) is used for labor induction and postpartum hemorrhage, not typically indicated for preeclampsia. Nifedipine (Choice D) is a calcium channel blocker used for managing hypertension in pregnancy but is not the first-line treatment for preventing seizures in severe preeclampsia.

5. A nurse is caring for a client with celiac disease. Which food should be removed from the meal tray?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Tortillas. Clients with celiac disease should avoid gluten, which is often found in tortillas. Cornbread, mashed potatoes, and lentils are gluten-free options, making them safe for individuals with celiac disease. Therefore, the other choices (A, B, and C) do not need to be removed from the meal tray.

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