Nursing Elites

1. When reviewing car seat use with the parents of a 1-month-old infant, which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Use a car seat that has a three-point harness system.
• B. Position the car seat so that the infant is rear-facing.
• C. Secure the car seat in the front passenger seat of the vehicle.
• D. Convert to a booster seat after 12 months.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for car seat use with a 1-month-old infant is to position the car seat so that the infant is rear-facing. This orientation provides the safest option for infants as it supports their head, neck, and spine. While using a car seat with a three-point harness system is appropriate for infants, placing the car seat in the front passenger seat is not recommended due to the presence of airbags, which can pose a risk to the infant in the event of deployment. Additionally, transitioning to a booster seat is not suitable at 12 months; infants should remain in rear-facing car seats until they outgrow the seat's height or weight limits, typically around 2 years of age.

2. A healthcare professional is admitting a client who has tuberculosis. Which of the following types of transmission precautions should the healthcare professional plan to initiate?

• A. Contact
• B. Droplet
• C. Airborne
• D. Protective environment

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Tuberculosis is transmitted through airborne particles, so airborne precautions are necessary to prevent the spread of the disease. Airborne precautions (Choice C) involve measures such as negative pressure rooms and N95 respirators to prevent the transmission of infectious agents that remain infectious over long distances when suspended in the air. Contact precautions (Choice A) are used for diseases that spread through direct contact with the patient or their environment. Droplet precautions (Choice B) are for diseases transmitted through respiratory droplets, typically over short distances. Protective environment (Choice D) is used for clients who are immunocompromised to protect them from environmental pathogens, not for diseases like tuberculosis that spread through the air.

3. The LPN/LVN mixes 50 mg of Nipride in 250 ml of D5W and plans to administer the solution at a rate of 5 mcg/kg/min to a client weighing 182 pounds. Using a drip factor of 60 gtt/ml, how many drops per minute should the client receive?

• A. 31 gtt/min.
• B. 62 gtt/min.
• C. 93 gtt/min.
• D. 124 gtt/min.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To calculate the drops per minute for the client, first, convert the weight from pounds to kilograms by dividing 182 by 2.2, which equals 82.72 kg. Then, calculate the dose in mcg/min by multiplying the weight in kg by the rate (82.72 kg * 5 mcg/kg/min = 413.6 mcg/min). Next, convert 50 mg to mcg (50 mg * 1000 = 50,000 mcg). Divide the total mcg (50,000 mcg) by the dose per minute (413.6 mcg/min) to get approximately 121 gtt/min. However, since the drip factor is 60 gtt/ml, the correct answer is 124 gtt/min, ensuring the accurate administration rate of the medication. Therefore, choice 'D' is the correct answer. Choices 'A', 'B', and 'C' are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the calculated drops per minute based on the given information.

4. The nurse is preparing to administer digoxin (Lanoxin) to a client with heart failure. Which assessment finding would prompt the nurse to withhold the medication and contact the healthcare provider?

• A. Heart rate of 55 beats per minute
• B. Blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg
• C. Respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute
• D. Blood glucose level of 150 mg/dL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A heart rate below 60 beats per minute is a contraindication for administering digoxin, as it can lead to bradycardia. Bradycardia is a common adverse effect associated with digoxin toxicity. Blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg, respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute, and blood glucose level of 150 mg/dL are within normal limits and would not warrant withholding the medication or contacting the healthcare provider in this context. Therefore, a heart rate of 55 beats per minute would prompt the nurse to withhold digoxin and notify the healthcare provider.

5. A charge nurse is teaching a newly licensed nurse about the care of a client who has methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). Which of the following statements should the charge nurse identify as an indication that the newly licensed nurse understands the teaching?

• A. I should obtain a specimen for culture and sensitivity after the first dose of an antimicrobial.
• B. MRSA is usually resistant to vancomycin, so another antimicrobial will be prescribed.
• C. I will protect others from exposure when I transport the client outside the room.
• D. To decrease resistance, antimicrobial therapy is discontinued when the client is no longer febrile.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Protecting others from exposure when transporting a client with MRSA is crucial in preventing the spread of infection. This statement demonstrates understanding of infection control measures. Stating that MRSA is usually resistant to vancomycin (choice B) is incorrect; vancomycin is often effective against MRSA. Obtaining a specimen for culture and sensitivity after the first dose of an antimicrobial (choice A) is unnecessary and not indicated. Discontinuing antimicrobial therapy when the client is no longer febrile (choice D) is incorrect because antimicrobial therapy should be completed as prescribed to prevent the development of resistant strains.

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