Nursing Elites

1. When reviewing car seat use with the parents of a 1-month-old infant, which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Use a car seat that has a three-point harness system.
• B. Position the car seat so that the infant is rear-facing.
• C. Secure the car seat in the front passenger seat of the vehicle.
• D. Convert to a booster seat after 12 months.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for car seat use with a 1-month-old infant is to position the car seat so that the infant is rear-facing. This orientation provides the safest option for infants as it supports their head, neck, and spine. While using a car seat with a three-point harness system is appropriate for infants, placing the car seat in the front passenger seat is not recommended due to the presence of airbags, which can pose a risk to the infant in the event of deployment. Additionally, transitioning to a booster seat is not suitable at 12 months; infants should remain in rear-facing car seats until they outgrow the seat's height or weight limits, typically around 2 years of age.

2. The client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which laboratory value should the LPN/LVN monitor closely to assess for complications?

• A. Serum potassium
• B. Blood glucose
• C. Serum sodium
• D. Serum calcium

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Blood glucose. When caring for a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN), monitoring blood glucose levels is essential due to the risk of hyperglycemia. TPN solutions are high in glucose, and clients may be at risk of developing hyperglycemia if the infusion rate is too high or if there are underlying issues such as insulin resistance. Monitoring serum potassium (choice A) is important but not the most crucial value to monitor in clients receiving TPN. Serum sodium (choice C) and serum calcium (choice D) are not directly impacted by TPN administration and are less likely to be affected compared to blood glucose levels.

3. While bathing a patient, the nurse notices movement in the patient's hair. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Use gloves to inspect the hair.
• B. Apply a lindane-based shampoo immediately.
• C. Shave the patient's hair off.
• D. Ignore the movement and continue.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a nurse suspects pediculosis capitis (head lice) upon noticing movement in the patient's hair, the correct action is to use gloves to inspect the hair. This protects the nurse from potential self-infestations. Applying a lindane-based shampoo immediately (Choice B) is not the first action, as diagnosis and confirmation are necessary before treatment. Shaving the patient's hair off (Choice C) is an extreme measure and is unnecessary at this stage. Ignoring the movement and continuing (Choice D) is negligent and can lead to the spread of infestation.

4. A client with a history of diabetes mellitus is experiencing polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia. What is the most important action for the nurse to take?

• A. Monitor the client's blood glucose level.
• B. Encourage the client to increase fluid intake.
• C. Administer insulin as prescribed.
• D. Assess the client's urine output.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most critical action for the nurse to take when a client with diabetes mellitus presents with symptoms of hyperglycemia such as polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia is to monitor the client's blood glucose level. This action helps in assessing the client's current glycemic status and guides further interventions. Encouraging increased fluid intake (Choice B) may be beneficial in managing dehydration caused by polyuria, but it does not address the underlying cause of hyperglycemia. Administering insulin as prescribed (Choice C) may be necessary based on the blood glucose monitoring results, but monitoring should precede any medication administration. Assessing the client's urine output (Choice D) is important but does not directly address the primary concern of evaluating and managing hyperglycemia in a client with diabetes.

5. A client is scheduled for an appendectomy and has given informed consent. Which statement by the client should the nurse address first preoperatively?

• A. “I am afraid to walk if it hurts too much.”
• B. “I don’t understand why I need this surgery.”
• C. “I don’t want my family helping me after the surgery.”
• D. “I am afraid the scar will make me look disfigured.”

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should address the client's lack of understanding regarding the need for surgery first. Ensuring that the client comprehends the rationale for the procedure is essential for informed consent. Choices A, C, and D, while important, do not directly impact the client's understanding of the necessity of the surgery and can be addressed after clarifying the reason for the procedure.

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