Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is providing teaching to an adolescent who has type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following goals should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. HbA1c level greater than 8%.
• B. Blood glucose level greater than 200 mg/dL at bedtime.
• C. Blood glucose level less than 60 mg/dL before breakfast.
• D. HbA1c level less than 7%.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. An HbA1c level less than 7% indicates good long-term glucose control for clients with diabetes. This goal reflects optimal glycemic control and reduces the risk of long-term complications. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not represent appropriate goals for managing type 1 diabetes in an adolescent. An HbA1c level greater than 8% (choice A) signifies poor glucose control, while a blood glucose level greater than 200 mg/dL at bedtime (choice B) and a blood glucose level less than 60 mg/dL before breakfast (choice C) are not within the target ranges for safe and effective diabetes management.

2. What are the risk factors for deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and how can it be prevented?

• A. Immobility and oral contraceptive use
• B. Pregnancy and smoking
• C. Obesity and varicose veins
• D. Hypertension and high cholesterol

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Immobility and oral contraceptive use. Immobility and oral contraceptive use are significant risk factors for deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Immobility leads to blood stasis, increasing the risk of clot formation, while oral contraceptive use can promote hypercoagulability. Prevention strategies for DVT include promoting mobility to enhance blood circulation and using anticoagulants to prevent clot formation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. While pregnancy and smoking can increase the risk of DVT, they are not the specific factors mentioned in the question. Similarly, obesity and varicose veins, as well as hypertension and high cholesterol, are not the primary risk factors associated with DVT.

3. A nurse is collecting data from a male client who is scheduled for a left inguinal herniorrhaphy. Which of the following findings is the priority for the nurse to report to the provider?

• A. High blood pressure
• B. Decreased bowel sounds
• C. Constipation
• D. Difficulty urinating

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Difficulty urinating.' This finding is crucial to report promptly as it can indicate a complication, such as urinary retention or injury to the urinary tract, which are significant concerns post-hernia surgery. High blood pressure (Choice A) may require monitoring but is not as urgent as difficulty urinating. Decreased bowel sounds (Choice B) and constipation (Choice C) are common after surgery and may resolve with appropriate interventions but are not as critical as addressing difficulty urinating.

4. A client with diabetes is being discharged. What is an essential teaching point?

• A. Monitor blood sugar levels once a week
• B. Instruct the client to administer insulin before meals
• C. Teach the client to exercise regularly to maintain glucose control
• D. Administer oral hypoglycemics as needed

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Instructing the client to administer insulin before meals is a crucial teaching point for a client with diabetes. This action ensures proper glucose management by helping to control blood sugar levels. Monitoring blood sugar levels once a week (Choice A) may not be frequent enough to manage diabetes effectively. While regular exercise (Choice C) is beneficial for glucose control, the immediate administration of insulin is more critical at the time of discharge. Administering oral hypoglycemics as needed (Choice D) is inappropriate as it does not address the need for insulin administration for a client being discharged.

5. A client takes prednisone daily for the treatment of chronic asthma. The nurse should plan to monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Hyperglycemia
• B. Hypertension
• C. Gastric ulcer formation
• D. Diarrhea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Gastric ulcer formation. Prednisone, a corticosteroid, increases the risk of gastric ulcer formation, especially with long-term use. While prednisone can also lead to hyperglycemia (choice A) and hypertension (choice B) as adverse effects, monitoring for gastric ulcer formation is a priority due to its association with corticosteroid therapy. Diarrhea (choice D) is not a common adverse effect of prednisone and is less likely compared to gastric ulcers.

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