Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is providing teaching to an adolescent who has type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following goals should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. HbA1c level greater than 8%.
• B. Blood glucose level greater than 200 mg/dL at bedtime.
• C. Blood glucose level less than 60 mg/dL before breakfast.
• D. HbA1c level less than 7%.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. An HbA1c level less than 7% indicates good long-term glucose control for clients with diabetes. This goal reflects optimal glycemic control and reduces the risk of long-term complications. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not represent appropriate goals for managing type 1 diabetes in an adolescent. An HbA1c level greater than 8% (choice A) signifies poor glucose control, while a blood glucose level greater than 200 mg/dL at bedtime (choice B) and a blood glucose level less than 60 mg/dL before breakfast (choice C) are not within the target ranges for safe and effective diabetes management.

2. A healthcare provider is reviewing the medical record of a client who is scheduled for surgery. Which of the following findings should the provider report?

• A. White blood cell count of 8,000/mm³
• B. Potassium level of 4.0 mEq/L
• C. Creatinine level of 1.0 mg/dL
• D. Hemoglobin level of 12 g/dL

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An elevated creatinine level indicates impaired kidney function, which may affect the client's ability to undergo surgery. The other laboratory values (white blood cell count, potassium level, and hemoglobin level) are within normal ranges and do not directly impact the client's readiness for surgery.

3. A client post-lumbar puncture should be in which position?

• A. High Fowler's position
• B. Prone position
• C. Supine position
• D. Sitting position

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most appropriate position for a client post-lumbar puncture is the supine position. Placing the client in a supine position helps prevent spinal headaches by allowing the puncture site to seal effectively and reducing the risk of cerebrospinal fluid leakage. High Fowler's position, prone position, and sitting position are not recommended after a lumbar puncture as they may increase the risk of complications like spinal headaches.

4. How should a healthcare professional manage a patient with congestive heart failure?

• A. Administer diuretics and monitor fluid balance
• B. Provide a high-sodium diet and restrict fluids
• C. Administer oxygen and provide pain relief
• D. Provide bronchodilators and encourage mobility

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct answer: The most appropriate management for a patient with congestive heart failure is to administer diuretics to help remove excess fluid and monitor fluid balance. Diuretics help reduce the workload on the heart and alleviate symptoms of fluid overload. Choice B is incorrect because patients with congestive heart failure are usually advised to limit sodium intake and carefully monitor fluid intake. Choice C is incorrect because although oxygen therapy may be necessary in certain cases, it is not the primary management for congestive heart failure. Pain relief is not a primary intervention for this condition. Choice D is incorrect because bronchodilators are not the first-line treatment for congestive heart failure. Encouraging mobility is important, but administering diuretics and monitoring fluid balance take precedence in managing this condition.

5. While caring for a client with an IV infusion who develops redness and warmth at the IV site, what is the most appropriate intervention?

• A. Elevate the IV site and apply an ice pack
• B. Administer an anti-inflammatory medication
• C. Apply a cold compress to the IV site
• D. Discontinue the IV and notify the provider

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention when a client develops redness and warmth at the IV site, indicating phlebitis, is to discontinue the IV and notify the provider. This is crucial to prevent further complications. Elevating the IV site and applying an ice pack (Choice A) may not address the underlying issue of phlebitis. Administering an anti-inflammatory medication (Choice B) is not the primary intervention for phlebitis. Applying a cold compress (Choice C) may provide temporary relief but does not address the need to discontinue the IV when phlebitis occurs.

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