ATI LPN
PN ATI Comprehensive Predictor
1. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medical records of a client who has a pressure ulcer. Which of the following is an expected finding?
- A. Serum albumin level of 3 g/dL
- B. HDL level of 90 mg/dL
- C. Norton scale score of 18
- D. Braden scale score of 20
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A serum albumin level of 3 g/dL is indicative of poor nutrition, which is commonly associated with pressure ulcers. This finding suggests that the client may be at risk for developing or already has a pressure ulcer due to malnutrition. High-density lipoprotein (HDL) level of 90 mg/dL (Choice B) is not directly related to pressure ulcers. The Norton scale (Choice C) is used to assess a client's risk of developing pressure ulcers, not as a finding in a client with an existing pressure ulcer. The Braden scale (Choice D) is also a tool used to assess the risk of developing pressure ulcers, not a finding in a client with an existing pressure ulcer.
2. A nurse in a provider's office is reinforcing discharge teaching with a client who is postoperative following cataract removal from one eye. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Use eye drops to soothe dryness
- B. Avoid rubbing the eye
- C. Sleep on the side of the affected eye
- D. Avoid lying on the affected side
Correct answer: D
Rationale: After cataract surgery, it is essential to avoid lying on the affected side to reduce pressure and promote healing. Sleeping on the side of the affected eye (Choice C) may increase pressure on the eye, leading to complications. While using eye drops to soothe dryness (Choice A) is generally recommended postoperatively, it is not as crucial as avoiding pressure on the eye. Rubbing the eye (Choice B) should be avoided to prevent irritation and potential damage, but it is not as critical as avoiding pressure on the affected eye.
3. What are the primary differences between left-sided and right-sided heart failure?
- A. Left-sided: Pulmonary congestion; Right-sided: Systemic edema
- B. Right-sided: Pulmonary congestion; Left-sided: Systemic edema
- C. Left-sided: Systemic edema; Right-sided: Pulmonary congestion
- D. Right-sided: Pulmonary congestion; Left-sided: Heart failure
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: "Left-sided: Pulmonary congestion; Right-sided: Systemic edema." Left-sided heart failure primarily affects the lungs, leading to pulmonary congestion, which manifests as symptoms like shortness of breath and cough. On the other hand, right-sided heart failure causes systemic congestion and edema, often presenting as swelling in the legs and abdomen due to fluid retention. Choice B is incorrect because it swaps the features of left-sided and right-sided heart failure. Choice C is incorrect as it also incorrectly switches the characteristics of the two types of heart failure. Choice D is incorrect because it inaccurately associates left-sided heart failure with pulmonary congestion and right-sided heart failure with heart failure itself, which is not a distinguishing feature.
4. A client with a tracheostomy shows signs of respiratory distress. What action should the nurse take immediately?
- A. Increase the suction setting on the ventilator
- B. Administer a bronchodilator
- C. Suction the tracheostomy
- D. Encourage deep breathing exercises
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct immediate action for a client with a tracheostomy showing signs of respiratory distress is to suction the tracheostomy. Respiratory distress in this case is often caused by a blockage, which can be quickly relieved by suctioning to clear the airway. Increasing the suction setting on the ventilator (Choice A) may not address the immediate blockage in the tracheostomy. Administering a bronchodilator (Choice B) may help with bronchoconstriction but does not address the potential blockage in the tracheostomy. Encouraging deep breathing exercises (Choice D) may not be effective in relieving the immediate respiratory distress caused by a blocked tracheostomy.
5. A nurse on an acute unit has received a change of shift report for 4 clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first?
- A. A client who is 1 hr postoperative and has hypoactive bowel sounds.
- B. A client who has a fractured left tibia and pallor in the affected extremity.
- C. A client who had a cardiac catheterization 3 hr ago and has 3+ pedal pulses.
- D. A client who has an elevated AST level following the administration of azithromycin.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because pallor in an extremity after a fracture could indicate compromised circulation, making it a priority for assessment. Choice A is not the priority as hypoactive bowel sounds in a client 1 hr postoperative, while concerning, do not indicate a life-threatening condition. Choice C, a client who had a cardiac catheterization 3 hr ago and has 3+ pedal pulses, indicates good perfusion and does not require immediate attention. Choice D, a client with an elevated AST level following the administration of azithromycin, may require further assessment but is not as urgent as the client with potential compromised circulation in choice B.
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