Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medical records of a client who has a pressure ulcer. Which of the following is an expected finding?

• A. Serum albumin level of 3 g/dL
• B. HDL level of 90 mg/dL
• C. Norton scale score of 18
• D. Braden scale score of 20

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A serum albumin level of 3 g/dL is indicative of poor nutrition, which is commonly associated with pressure ulcers. This finding suggests that the client may be at risk for developing or already has a pressure ulcer due to malnutrition. High-density lipoprotein (HDL) level of 90 mg/dL (Choice B) is not directly related to pressure ulcers. The Norton scale (Choice C) is used to assess a client's risk of developing pressure ulcers, not as a finding in a client with an existing pressure ulcer. The Braden scale (Choice D) is also a tool used to assess the risk of developing pressure ulcers, not a finding in a client with an existing pressure ulcer.

2. What are the nursing considerations for a patient receiving anticoagulant therapy?

• A. Monitor INR levels and check for bleeding
• B. Educate patient on dietary restrictions
• C. Ensure adequate hydration and nutrition
• D. Ensure that the patient remains immobile

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Monitor INR levels and check for bleeding.' When a patient is receiving anticoagulant therapy, nurses must monitor the patient's INR levels to ensure that the anticoagulants are within the therapeutic range and also watch for signs of bleeding, which is a common side effect of anticoagulants. Option B is incorrect because while patient education is important, dietary restrictions are not a direct nursing consideration when administering anticoagulant therapy. Option C is not a specific nursing consideration related to anticoagulant therapy. Option D is incorrect as keeping the patient immobile is not a standard nursing practice for patients on anticoagulant therapy, as mobility is often encouraged to prevent complications like deep vein thrombosis.

3. What are the key interventions in managing a patient with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)?

• A. Administer insulin and fluids
• B. Administer oral hypoglycemics
• C. Administer glucagon
• D. Administer insulin and monitor blood glucose

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention in managing a patient with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is to administer insulin and fluids. Insulin is crucial to correct hyperglycemia, while fluids are important to address dehydration. Administering oral hypoglycemics (Choice B) is not appropriate in the management of DKA as the patient may not be able to absorb oral medications due to gastrointestinal issues. Glucagon (Choice C) is not indicated in the treatment of DKA. Although monitoring blood glucose (Choice D) is important, it is not the sole key intervention for managing DKA; administering insulin and fluids are the primary interventions.

4. What is the best approach to assist a client in performing self-care after an acute myocardial infarction, when the client expresses concern about fatigue?

• A. Provide clear instructions on how to ask for assistance
• B. Gradually resume self-care tasks, focusing on rest periods
• C. Encourage assistive personnel to complete self-care tasks
• D. Encourage the client to remain in bed until fully rested

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best approach to assist a client in performing self-care after an acute myocardial infarction, especially when the client expresses concern about fatigue, is to gradually resume self-care tasks while focusing on rest periods. This approach allows the client to build confidence in managing their self-care activities while also addressing the issue of fatigue. Choice A is incorrect as it focuses on asking for assistance rather than promoting self-care. Choice C is inappropriate as it suggests delegating the client's self-care tasks to assistive personnel instead of empowering the client. Choice D is incorrect as it can lead to deconditioning and is not conducive to the client's recovery process.

5. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medical record of a client who is receiving furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the healthcare professional monitor while the client is taking this medication?

• A. Sodium
• B. Glucose
• C. Potassium
• D. Calcium

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Potassium. Furosemide is a diuretic that can cause potassium depletion due to increased urinary excretion. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent hypokalemia, which can lead to serious complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Sodium (choice A) levels are not typically affected by furosemide. Glucose (choice B) monitoring is important with other medications like corticosteroids but is not directly related to furosemide use. Calcium (choice D) levels are not significantly impacted by furosemide.

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