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PN ATI Comprehensive Predictor
1. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medical records of a client who has a pressure ulcer. Which of the following is an expected finding?
- A. Serum albumin level of 3 g/dL
- B. HDL level of 90 mg/dL
- C. Norton scale score of 18
- D. Braden scale score of 20
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A serum albumin level of 3 g/dL is indicative of poor nutrition, which is commonly associated with pressure ulcers. This finding suggests that the client may be at risk for developing or already has a pressure ulcer due to malnutrition. High-density lipoprotein (HDL) level of 90 mg/dL (Choice B) is not directly related to pressure ulcers. The Norton scale (Choice C) is used to assess a client's risk of developing pressure ulcers, not as a finding in a client with an existing pressure ulcer. The Braden scale (Choice D) is also a tool used to assess the risk of developing pressure ulcers, not a finding in a client with an existing pressure ulcer.
2. What are the primary differences between left-sided and right-sided heart failure?
- A. Left-sided: Pulmonary congestion; Right-sided: Systemic edema
- B. Right-sided: Pulmonary congestion; Left-sided: Systemic edema
- C. Left-sided: Systemic edema; Right-sided: Pulmonary congestion
- D. Right-sided: Pulmonary congestion; Left-sided: Heart failure
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: "Left-sided: Pulmonary congestion; Right-sided: Systemic edema." Left-sided heart failure primarily affects the lungs, leading to pulmonary congestion, which manifests as symptoms like shortness of breath and cough. On the other hand, right-sided heart failure causes systemic congestion and edema, often presenting as swelling in the legs and abdomen due to fluid retention. Choice B is incorrect because it swaps the features of left-sided and right-sided heart failure. Choice C is incorrect as it also incorrectly switches the characteristics of the two types of heart failure. Choice D is incorrect because it inaccurately associates left-sided heart failure with pulmonary congestion and right-sided heart failure with heart failure itself, which is not a distinguishing feature.
3. A healthcare professional is caring for a client with coronary artery disease (CAD) who is prescribed aspirin. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?
- A. A history of gastrointestinal bleeding
- B. A history of hypertension
- C. A platelet count of 180,000/mm³
- D. A prothrombin time (PT) of 12 seconds
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: A history of gastrointestinal bleeding. Patients with a history of gastrointestinal bleeding are at increased risk of complications when taking aspirin due to its effects on platelet function and the gastrointestinal tract. Reporting this finding to the provider is crucial to ensure patient safety. Choices B, C, and D are not directly related to the increased risk associated with aspirin use in patients with a history of gastrointestinal bleeding, making them less relevant in this scenario. While monitoring platelet count and PT are important in patients taking aspirin, a history of gastrointestinal bleeding takes precedence as it directly impacts the safety and effectiveness of aspirin therapy in this client.
4. A client with a peptic ulcer had a partial gastrectomy and vagotomy (Billroth I). In planning the discharge teaching, the client should be cautioned by the nurse about which of the following?
- A. Sit up for at least 30 minutes after eating
- B. Avoid fluids between meals
- C. Increase the intake of high-carbohydrate foods
- D. Avoid eating large meals that are high in simple sugars and liquids
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Avoid eating large meals that are high in simple sugars and liquids.' Clients who have undergone partial gastrectomy are at risk of dumping syndrome, which can occur due to the rapid emptying of stomach contents into the small intestine. Consuming large meals high in simple sugars and liquids can exacerbate this syndrome, leading to symptoms like abdominal cramping and diarrhea. Choices A, B, and C are not directly related to preventing dumping syndrome and are not the priority concerns for a client post-partial gastrectomy.
5. A nurse is caring for a client following an acute myocardial infarction. The client is concerned that providing self-care will be difficult due to extreme fatigue. Which of the following strategies should the nurse implement to promote the client's independence?
- A. Request an occupational therapy consult to determine the need for assistive devices
- B. Assign assistive personnel to perform self-care tasks for the client
- C. Instruct the client to focus on gradually resuming self-care tasks
- D. Ask the client if a family member is available to assist with his care
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Instructing the client to focus on gradually resuming self-care tasks is the most appropriate strategy to promote independence following an acute myocardial infarction. This approach allows the client to regain confidence and control over their self-care activities without feeling overwhelmed. Requesting an occupational therapy consult (Choice A) may be beneficial but is not the immediate solution to promote independence. Assigning assistive personnel (Choice B) to perform tasks for the client does not encourage independence. Asking if a family member is available for assistance (Choice D) does not directly promote the client's independence.
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