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1. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medical records of a client who has a pressure ulcer. Which of the following is an expected finding?
- A. Serum albumin level of 3 g/dL
- B. HDL level of 90 mg/dL
- C. Norton scale score of 18
- D. Braden scale score of 20
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A serum albumin level of 3 g/dL is indicative of poor nutrition, which is commonly associated with pressure ulcers. This finding suggests that the client may be at risk for developing or already has a pressure ulcer due to malnutrition. High-density lipoprotein (HDL) level of 90 mg/dL (Choice B) is not directly related to pressure ulcers. The Norton scale (Choice C) is used to assess a client's risk of developing pressure ulcers, not as a finding in a client with an existing pressure ulcer. The Braden scale (Choice D) is also a tool used to assess the risk of developing pressure ulcers, not a finding in a client with an existing pressure ulcer.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 hours postoperative following a colon resection. Which of the following assessments is the nurse's priority?
- A. Capillary refill
- B. Bowel sounds
- C. Temperature
- D. Oxygen saturation
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Oxygen saturation. The priority assessment in this situation is oxygen saturation because postoperative clients are at risk for respiratory complications, such as hypoxia due to factors like anesthesia effects, impaired lung function, or pain interfering with deep breathing. Monitoring oxygen saturation is crucial to detect any respiratory compromise early. Capillary refill, bowel sounds, and temperature are important assessments but are not the priority in this immediate postoperative period.
3. A nurse is reviewing the plan of care for a client who is taking digoxin. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor as an adverse effect of this medication?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hypernatremia
- C. Hypertension
- D. Tachycardia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Hypokalemia is an adverse effect of digoxin. Digoxin can cause hypokalemia, which increases the risk of toxicity. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial when a client is taking digoxin. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as hypernatremia, hypertension, and tachycardia are not directly associated with digoxin use.
4. What is the most appropriate action for a healthcare provider to take when a patient is experiencing a seizure?
- A. Protect the patient's head
- B. Restrain the patient's movements
- C. Insert an airway
- D. Give the patient water
Correct answer: A
Rationale: During a seizure, the most appropriate action for a healthcare provider is to protect the patient's head. This helps prevent injury, especially considering the involuntary movements and potential thrashing associated with seizures. Restraint should be avoided as it can lead to further injury or distress for the patient. Inserting an airway is not recommended during an active seizure as the patient's airway may not be obstructed, and it could pose a risk of injury. Giving the patient water during a seizure is also not advisable as there is a risk of aspiration. Therefore, the priority is to ensure the patient's safety by protecting their head.
5. What are key signs of a urinary tract infection (UTI) in older adults?
- A. Confusion and increased temperature
- B. Painful urination and frequent urination
- C. Dizziness and headache
- D. Back pain and fever
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. In older adults, key signs of a UTI often include confusion and increased temperature. Confusion is a common symptom in the elderly when they have a UTI, and an increase in body temperature can indicate an infection. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while painful urination and frequent urination are common UTI symptoms in general, they may not be as prominent in older adults. Dizziness, headache, back pain, and fever can be associated with other conditions but are not typically key signs of a UTI in older adults.
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