a nurse is assessing a client who has received a preoperative dose of morphine which of the following findings is the priority to report to the provid
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ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Quizlet

1. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has received a preoperative dose of morphine. Which of the following findings is the priority to report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An oxygen saturation of 90% is below the expected reference range and could indicate respiratory depression, a serious side effect of morphine. This finding requires immediate attention as it may lead to hypoxia. Nausea (choice A) is a common side effect of morphine but does not pose an immediate threat. A urinary output of 20 mL/hr (choice B) may indicate decreased renal perfusion but is not as critical as respiratory compromise. A respiratory rate of 14/min (choice D) is within the normal range and does not suggest immediate danger.

2. A nurse is teaching a client who is to undergo radiation therapy for breast cancer about potential adverse effects. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct adverse effect that the nurse should include in the teaching is fatigue. Fatigue is a common side effect of radiation therapy, particularly with prolonged treatment. Constipation, hair loss, and weight gain are not typically associated with radiation therapy for breast cancer, making them incorrect choices. Fatigue can significantly impact a patient's quality of life during treatment and should be addressed proactively by healthcare providers.

3. What is the first step in managing a patient with a suspected pneumothorax?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to insert a chest tube. In managing a patient with a suspected pneumothorax, the priority is to relieve the pressure from the pneumothorax by inserting a chest tube. Monitoring respiratory status (choice B) is important but comes after ensuring proper management of the pneumothorax. Administering oxygen (choice C) can help support oxygenation but does not address the underlying issue of pressure in the thoracic cavity. Calling for assistance (choice D) can be done concurrently with managing the pneumothorax, but the immediate intervention to address the pneumothorax itself is chest tube insertion.

4. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory report of a client who is receiving filgrastim. Which of the following laboratory values should the healthcare professional monitor to determine the effectiveness of the treatment?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Filgrastim works by stimulating the production of white blood cells. Therefore, monitoring the white blood cell (WBC) count is essential to assess the effectiveness of the treatment. Choice B, serum potassium, is not directly affected by filgrastim therapy. Choice C, hemoglobin level, is important but not the primary indicator of filgrastim's effectiveness. Choice D, serum creatinine, is unrelated to the action of filgrastim and would not reflect its effectiveness.

5. A client with hypertension is asking for lifestyle changes. What should the nurse recommend?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Reduce caffeine and alcohol consumption. This recommendation is crucial for managing hypertension as excessive caffeine and alcohol intake can elevate blood pressure. By reducing these stimulants, the client can help regulate their blood pressure levels. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing sodium intake (Choice A) is contraindicated in hypertension as it can lead to fluid retention and worsen blood pressure. Encouraging increased protein intake (Choice C) and increasing intake of fruits and vegetables (Choice D) are generally healthy dietary suggestions but not specifically targeted at managing hypertension.

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