ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Quizlet
1. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has received a preoperative dose of morphine. Which of the following findings is the priority to report to the provider?
- A. Client reports nausea.
- B. Urinary output of 20 mL/hr.
- C. Oxygen saturation 90%.
- D. Respiratory rate 14/min.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: An oxygen saturation of 90% is below the expected reference range and could indicate respiratory depression, a serious side effect of morphine. This finding requires immediate attention as it may lead to hypoxia. Nausea (choice A) is a common side effect of morphine but does not pose an immediate threat. A urinary output of 20 mL/hr (choice B) may indicate decreased renal perfusion but is not as critical as respiratory compromise. A respiratory rate of 14/min (choice D) is within the normal range and does not suggest immediate danger.
2. When using restraints for an agitated/aggressive patient, which of the following statements should NOT influence the nurse's actions during this intervention?
- A. The institution's restraints/seclusion policies
- B. The patient's competence
- C. The patient's voluntary/involuntary status
- D. The patient's nursing care plan
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because the patient's voluntary or involuntary status should not impact the nurse's actions when using restraints. The use of restraints should be based on the patient's behavior and the need to ensure their safety and the safety of others. Choices A, B, and D are important factors that should influence the nurse's actions. The institution's restraints/seclusion policies provide guidelines on the appropriate use of restraints, the patient's competence helps determine their understanding and ability to control their behavior, and the patient's nursing care plan guides the overall care provided, including the use of restraints if necessary.
3. What are the nursing interventions for a patient with hypokalemia?
- A. Administer potassium supplements and monitor ECG
- B. Provide a high-sodium diet and monitor for hypertension
- C. Monitor for muscle weakness and provide dietary education
- D. Administer diuretics and provide oral fluids
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct intervention for a patient with hypokalemia is to administer potassium supplements and monitor the ECG. Potassium supplements help correct the low potassium levels in the body, while ECG monitoring is essential to detect any cardiac arrhythmias associated with hypokalemia. Choice B is incorrect because a high-sodium diet would worsen hypokalemia by further depleting potassium levels. Choice C is incorrect as it only focuses on monitoring symptoms and providing dietary education, but does not address the immediate need to correct potassium levels. Choice D is also incorrect as administering diuretics would exacerbate hypokalemia by increasing potassium loss.
4. How should a healthcare professional manage a patient with an indwelling urinary catheter?
- A. Monitor urine output and ensure proper drainage
- B. Administer antibiotics and change the catheter regularly
- C. Monitor for signs of infection and provide catheter care
- D. Provide high-sodium diet and monitor hydration
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Monitoring urine output and ensuring proper catheter drainage are crucial aspects of managing a patient with an indwelling urinary catheter. This helps in assessing the patient's renal function, fluid balance, and the patency of the catheter. Administering antibiotics and changing the catheter regularly (Choice B) may not be necessary unless there is an infection present. While monitoring for signs of infection and providing catheter care (Choice C) are important, the primary focus should be on urine output and drainage. Providing a high-sodium diet and monitoring hydration (Choice D) are not directly related to managing an indwelling urinary catheter.
5. A nurse is assisting with monitoring a client who is in labor and has spontaneous rupture of membranes following a vaginal examination. The provider reports the client's cervix is dilated to 1 cm with an unengaged presenting part. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Encourage the client to bear down
- B. Apply the external fetal monitor
- C. Provide the client with fluids
- D. Administer IV fluids
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, with the client's cervix dilated to only 1 cm and an unengaged presenting part, the priority action is to apply the external fetal monitor. This allows for continuous monitoring of the fetal heart rate during early labor, which is crucial for assessing fetal well-being. Encouraging the client to bear down is not appropriate at 1 cm dilation, as it may not be effective and can lead to exhaustion. Providing the client with fluids or administering IV fluids may be necessary for hydration, but the immediate concern is monitoring fetal well-being.
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