ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Quizlet
1. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has received a preoperative dose of morphine. Which of the following findings is the priority to report to the provider?
- A. Client reports nausea.
- B. Urinary output of 20 mL/hr.
- C. Oxygen saturation 90%.
- D. Respiratory rate 14/min.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: An oxygen saturation of 90% is below the expected reference range and could indicate respiratory depression, a serious side effect of morphine. This finding requires immediate attention as it may lead to hypoxia. Nausea (choice A) is a common side effect of morphine but does not pose an immediate threat. A urinary output of 20 mL/hr (choice B) may indicate decreased renal perfusion but is not as critical as respiratory compromise. A respiratory rate of 14/min (choice D) is within the normal range and does not suggest immediate danger.
2. A nurse is collecting data from a client who has bipolar disorder and is experiencing acute mania. Which of the following findings is the nurse's priority?
- A. Pressured speech
- B. Increased appetite
- C. Lack of sleep
- D. Mood swings
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Lack of sleep.' In a client experiencing acute mania due to bipolar disorder, lack of sleep is the priority finding for the nurse to address. Sleep deprivation can exacerbate symptoms, lead to exhaustion, and increase the risk of further complications. Pressured speech, increased appetite, and mood swings are also common in acute mania, but addressing the lack of sleep takes precedence due to its significant impact on the client's well-being and recovery.
3. A nurse is reviewing the plan of care for a client who is undergoing total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?
- A. Monitor the client's electrolyte levels daily
- B. Weigh the client daily
- C. Monitor the client's blood glucose levels every 6 hours
- D. Change the TPN tubing every 24 hours
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct intervention for the nurse to include in the plan of care for a client undergoing total parenteral nutrition (TPN) is to change the TPN tubing every 24 hours. Changing the tubing at regular intervals helps reduce the risk of infection associated with central venous catheters. Monitoring electrolyte levels daily (Choice A) is important but not specific to TPN. Weighing the client daily (Choice B) is important for monitoring fluid status but not directly related to TPN. Monitoring blood glucose levels every 6 hours (Choice C) is essential for clients receiving TPN, but changing the tubing is a more critical intervention to prevent infections.
4. What are early indicators of dehydration?
- A. Dry mouth
- B. Increased thirst
- C. Decreased urine output
- D. Dizziness
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, dry mouth, and B, increased thirst are early indicators of dehydration. Dry mouth occurs when the body is dehydrated, and increased thirst is the body's way of trying to increase fluid intake to combat dehydration. Choices C and D, decreased urine output and dizziness, can be signs of severe dehydration but are not typically considered early indicators.
5. A client receiving IV fluids has developed phlebitis. What action should the nurse take next after removing the IV catheter?
- A. Place a warm compress over the IV site
- B. Record the findings in the client's chart
- C. Notify the client's primary care provider
- D. Insert a new IV catheter
Correct answer: A
Rationale: After removing an IV catheter due to phlebitis, the next step is to apply a warm compress over the IV site. This helps reduce inflammation and discomfort for the client. Recording the findings in the client's chart is important for documentation purposes but not the immediate next step. Notifying the client's primary care provider may be necessary depending on the severity of the phlebitis, but it is not the initial action. Inserting a new IV catheter is not appropriate until the phlebitis has resolved.
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