Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has received a preoperative dose of morphine. Which of the following findings is the priority to report to the provider?

• A. Client reports nausea.
• B. Urinary output of 20 mL/hr.
• C. Oxygen saturation 90%.
• D. Respiratory rate 14/min.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An oxygen saturation of 90% is below the expected reference range and could indicate respiratory depression, a serious side effect of morphine. This finding requires immediate attention as it may lead to hypoxia. Nausea (choice A) is a common side effect of morphine but does not pose an immediate threat. A urinary output of 20 mL/hr (choice B) may indicate decreased renal perfusion but is not as critical as respiratory compromise. A respiratory rate of 14/min (choice D) is within the normal range and does not suggest immediate danger.

2. A client has a new diagnosis of Raynaud's disease. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Increase your intake of foods high in potassium.
• B. Keep your home environment warm.
• C. Elevate your legs when sitting.
• D. Reduce your intake of sodium.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to keep the home environment warm. Raynaud's disease causes vasospasm in response to cold, so maintaining a warm environment can help prevent attacks. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing potassium intake, elevating legs when sitting, or reducing sodium intake are not specific to managing Raynaud's disease.

3. A healthcare professional is collecting data from a client who is experiencing post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD). Which of the following manifestations should the healthcare professional expect?

• A. Hyperactivity
• B. Hypervigilance
• C. Restlessness
• D. Avoidance of social situations

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Hypervigilance is a common manifestation of PTSD characterized by heightened alertness and fear of danger. This heightened state of awareness can lead to irritability, difficulty concentrating, and sleep disturbances. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Hyperactivity is not typically associated with PTSD; restlessness may be present but is not the primary manifestation, and avoidance of social situations is more commonly seen in conditions like social anxiety disorder rather than PTSD.

4. What are early indicators of dehydration?

• A. Dry mouth
• B. Increased thirst
• C. Decreased urine output
• D. Dizziness

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, dry mouth, and B, increased thirst are early indicators of dehydration. Dry mouth occurs when the body is dehydrated, and increased thirst is the body's way of trying to increase fluid intake to combat dehydration. Choices C and D, decreased urine output and dizziness, can be signs of severe dehydration but are not typically considered early indicators.

5. What are the steps in managing a patient with a pressure ulcer?

• A. Clean the wound and apply a hydrocolloid dressing
• B. Debride necrotic tissue and apply antibiotics
• C. Apply an alginate dressing and elevate the affected area
• D. Use moisture-retentive dressings and reposition frequently

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Clean the wound and apply a hydrocolloid dressing. This step is crucial in managing a pressure ulcer as it helps protect the ulcer from infection and promotes healing by creating a moist environment conducive to tissue repair. Choice B, debriding necrotic tissue and applying antibiotics, is more suitable for managing infected pressure ulcers but not as the initial step. Choice C, applying an alginate dressing and elevating the affected area, may be part of the management but is not the initial step. Choice D, using moisture-retentive dressings and repositioning frequently, is important for prevention but not the first step in managing an existing pressure ulcer.

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