a nurse is assessing a client who has received a preoperative dose of morphine which of the following findings is the priority to report to the provid
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ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Quizlet

1. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has received a preoperative dose of morphine. Which of the following findings is the priority to report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An oxygen saturation of 90% is below the expected reference range and could indicate respiratory depression, a serious side effect of morphine. This finding requires immediate attention as it may lead to hypoxia. Nausea (choice A) is a common side effect of morphine but does not pose an immediate threat. A urinary output of 20 mL/hr (choice B) may indicate decreased renal perfusion but is not as critical as respiratory compromise. A respiratory rate of 14/min (choice D) is within the normal range and does not suggest immediate danger.

2. A nurse is reviewing the plan of care for a client who is postoperative following a hip replacement. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement to prevent venous thromboembolism?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention to prevent venous thromboembolism in a postoperative client following hip replacement is to administer anticoagulant therapy as prescribed. Anticoagulants help prevent blood clots from forming. Instructing the client to perform ankle pumps helps prevent blood clots by promoting circulation. Maintaining the client in a prone position can increase the risk of venous stasis and thrombus formation. Encouraging the client to ambulate as tolerated also helps prevent venous thromboembolism by promoting blood flow and preventing stasis.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has dementia and frequently gets out of bed unsupervised. What is the best intervention to prevent falls?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best intervention to prevent falls in a client with dementia who gets out of bed unsupervised is to place a bed exit alarm. This device alerts staff when the client attempts to leave the bed, allowing timely intervention to reduce the risk of falls. Using restraints (choice B) can lead to physical and psychological harm and should be avoided unless absolutely necessary. Asking the client's family to stay at the bedside (choice C) may not be feasible at all times and does not provide a continuous monitoring solution. Encouraging frequent ambulation with assistance (choice D) is beneficial for mobility but may not address the immediate risk of falls associated with unsupervised bed exits.

4. How should a healthcare provider respond to a patient experiencing a seizure?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a patient is experiencing a seizure, the immediate priority is to ensure their safety by placing them in a side-lying position. This helps prevent aspiration in case of vomiting and maintains an open airway. Administering anticonvulsant medications is not within the scope of a healthcare provider's immediate response during a seizure. Applying restraints can potentially harm the patient by restricting movement and causing injury. Monitoring for post-ictal confusion is important after the seizure has ended, but the primary concern during the seizure is ensuring the patient's safety.

5. Which dietary advice should a healthcare provider provide to a client with acute gout?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct dietary advice for a client with acute gout is to limit the intake of red meat and shellfish. These foods are high in purines, which can lead to increased uric acid levels in the body, exacerbating gout symptoms. Dairy products, fresh fruits, and vegetables are generally recommended for individuals with gout as they can help lower uric acid levels. Fruit juices and milk, in moderation, can also be part of a gout-friendly diet as they do not significantly contribute to uric acid buildup.

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