ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Quizlet
1. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has received a preoperative dose of morphine. Which of the following findings is the priority to report to the provider?
- A. Client reports nausea.
- B. Urinary output of 20 mL/hr.
- C. Oxygen saturation 90%.
- D. Respiratory rate 14/min.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: An oxygen saturation of 90% is below the expected reference range and could indicate respiratory depression, a serious side effect of morphine. This finding requires immediate attention as it may lead to hypoxia. Nausea (choice A) is a common side effect of morphine but does not pose an immediate threat. A urinary output of 20 mL/hr (choice B) may indicate decreased renal perfusion but is not as critical as respiratory compromise. A respiratory rate of 14/min (choice D) is within the normal range and does not suggest immediate danger.
2. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has schizophrenia and is taking clozapine. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a contraindication to the administration of clozapine?
- A. WBC count 2,900 /mm3.
- B. Fasting blood glucose 100 mg/dl.
- C. Hgb 14 g/dl.
- D. Heart rate 58/min.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A WBC count of 2,900/mm3 indicates leukopenia, which is a serious side effect of clozapine and contraindicates its use. Leukopenia is a significant concern with clozapine therapy due to the risk of agranulocytosis, a potentially life-threatening condition. Monitoring the WBC count is crucial to detect this adverse effect early. The other options (B, C, and D) are within normal ranges and not contraindications for administering clozapine.
3. A client with newly diagnosed type I diabetes mellitus is being seen by the home health nurse. The physician orders include: 1,200-calorie ADA diet, 15 units of NPH insulin before breakfast, and check blood sugar qid. When the nurse visits the client at 5 PM, the nurse observes the man performing a blood sugar analysis. The result is 50 mg/dL. The nurse would expect the client to be
- A. Confused with cold, clammy skin and a pulse of 110
- B. Lethargic with hot, dry skin and rapid, deep respirations
- C. Alert and cooperative with a BP of 130/80 and respirations of 12
- D. Short of breath, with distended neck veins and a bounding pulse of 96
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Low blood sugar levels (50 mg/dL) typically cause confusion, cold clammy skin, and an increased pulse (tachycardia). Option A correctly describes the expected symptoms of hypoglycemia, which include confusion due to the brain's inadequate glucose supply, cold and clammy skin due to sympathetic nervous system activation, and an increased pulse (110 bpm) as the body reacts to low blood sugar levels. Options B, C, and D describe symptoms that are not typically associated with hypoglycemia. Lethargy, hot dry skin, rapid deep respirations, normal vital signs, shortness of breath, distended neck veins, and bounding pulse are more indicative of other conditions or normal physiological responses, not hypoglycemia.
4. A client with diabetes is being discharged. What is the most important teaching point?
- A. Monitor blood sugar levels once in the morning
- B. Administer insulin before meals as prescribed
- C. Take medication only when feeling unwell
- D. Monitor glucose levels weekly
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most important teaching point for a client with diabetes being discharged is to administer insulin before meals as prescribed. This is crucial for managing blood sugar levels effectively and preventing complications. Monitoring blood sugar levels once in the morning (Choice A) is not sufficient for proper diabetes management, as levels can fluctuate throughout the day. Taking medication only when feeling unwell (Choice C) is not recommended as diabetes treatment is based on a regular schedule. Monitoring glucose levels weekly (Choice D) is not frequent enough to provide the necessary information for managing diabetes on a day-to-day basis.
5. A nurse is planning an educational program for high school students about cigarette smoking. Which of the following potential consequences of smoking is most likely to discourage adolescents from using tobacco?
- A. Use of tobacco might lead to alcohol and drug abuse.
- B. Smoking in adolescence increases the risk of developing lung cancer later in life.
- C. Use of tobacco decreases the level of athletic ability.
- D. Smoking in adolescence increases the risk of lifelong addiction.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The most likely consequence to discourage adolescents from smoking is the immediate effect of decreased athletic ability. This consequence is more tangible and relevant to high school students compared to long-term health risks like lung cancer or addiction. While choices A, B, and D are all negative outcomes of smoking, choice C is more likely to have a direct impact on adolescents due to its immediate and visible effects on their physical performance.
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