ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 A with NGN
1. While providing education about the use of lorazepam, which of the following should be included?
- A. It can cause dependency
- B. It can be taken with alcohol
- C. It has no side effects
- D. It is a stimulant
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'It can cause dependency.' Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine known to cause dependency, so it is crucial for clients to be informed about this potential risk. Choice B is incorrect as combining lorazepam with alcohol can lead to increased sedation and other adverse effects. Choice C is incorrect because lorazepam, like any medication, can have side effects such as drowsiness, dizziness, or confusion. Choice D is also incorrect as lorazepam is a sedative-hypnotic medication, not a stimulant.
2. A healthcare professional is assessing a client in the PACU. Which of the following findings indicates decreased cardiac output?
- A. Shivering
- B. Oliguria
- C. Bradypnea
- D. Constricted pupils
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Oliguria (low urine output) is a sign of decreased cardiac output because the kidneys are not being adequately perfused, leading to reduced urine production. Shivering (choice A) is a response to hypothermia, not directly related to cardiac output. Bradypnea (choice C) refers to abnormally slow breathing rate and is not a direct indicator of decreased cardiac output. Constricted pupils (choice D) can be caused by medications or sympathetic nervous system stimulation but are not specific to decreased cardiac output.
3. A client is reviewing information about advance directives with a nurse. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I understand that I can change my mind at any time.
- B. I have a living will that outlines my wishes when I am unable to make a decision.
- C. I need to inform my family about my wishes.
- D. I don’t need to worry about advance directives right now.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because having a living will indicates that the client understands and has documented their wishes regarding medical treatment when they are unable to make decisions. Choice A is incorrect because while it's true that clients can change their minds about advance directives, it doesn't specifically indicate an understanding of the teaching provided. Choice C is important but doesn't directly show if the client understands advance directives. Choice D is incorrect because it dismisses the importance of advance directives, indicating a lack of understanding.
4. A healthcare professional is assessing a client for signs of anemia. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional expect?
- A. Increased energy levels
- B. Pale skin
- C. Elevated blood pressure
- D. Decreased heart rate
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Pale skin is a common sign of anemia due to reduced hemoglobin levels, leading to decreased oxygen delivery to tissues. This results in skin pallor. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Anemia typically causes fatigue and decreased energy levels (not increased), low blood pressure (not elevated), and tachycardia (increased heart rate) to compensate for the decreased oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood.
5. A nurse is obtaining the medical history of a client who has a new prescription for isosorbide mononitrate. Which of the following should the nurse identify as a contraindication to this medication?
- A. Glaucoma
- B. Hypertension
- C. Polycythemia
- D. Migraine headaches
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Isosorbide mononitrate is contraindicated in clients with glaucoma due to its potential to increase intraocular pressure, which can exacerbate the condition. Hypertension, polycythemia, and migraine headaches are not contraindications for isosorbide mononitrate. In fact, isosorbide mononitrate is commonly used in the management of hypertension and certain types of angina.
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