Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is preparing to administer medications to a client who is NPO and has an NG tube for suction. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Mix medications with enteral feedings.
• B. Clamp the NG tube for 30 minutes after medication administration.
• C. Insert medications directly into the NG tube without dilution.
• D. Connect the NG tube to continuous suction after medication.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when administering medications to a client with an NG tube for suction who is NPO is to clamp the NG tube for 30 minutes after medication administration. This is done to allow for proper absorption of the medications before resuming suction. Choice A is incorrect because medications should not be mixed with enteral feedings as it may affect the drug's effectiveness. Choice C is incorrect as medications should not be inserted directly into the NG tube without dilution, as this can cause clogging or affect the tube. Choice D is incorrect because connecting the NG tube to continuous suction after medication administration can interfere with the absorption of the medications.

2. A nurse is preparing to administer a blood transfusion. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Obtain the client's consent
• B. Verify the blood type and crossmatch
• C. Take baseline vital signs
• D. Prime the IV with normal saline

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct first action the nurse should take when preparing to administer a blood transfusion is to verify the blood type and crossmatch. This step is crucial to ensure compatibility and prevent transfusion reactions. Obtaining the client's consent is important but should follow the verification process. Taking baseline vital signs is necessary before starting the transfusion, but confirming compatibility takes precedence. Priming the IV with normal saline is a step done before starting the transfusion, after ensuring blood compatibility.

3. A nurse in the emergency department is prioritizing care for four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse see first?

• A. A 6-year-old with a dislocated shoulder
• B. A 26-year-old with sickle cell disease and severe joint pain
• C. A 76-year-old with confusion, fever, and foul-smelling urine
• D. A 50-year-old with slurred speech, disorientation, and headache

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client with slurred speech, disorientation, and a headache may be experiencing a stroke, a life-threatening condition that requires immediate attention. Identifying and managing a stroke promptly can reduce the risk of long-term disability or complications. The other options, although important, do not present immediate life-threatening conditions that require urgent intervention. A dislocated shoulder, severe joint pain in sickle cell disease, confusion with fever and foul-smelling urine, while concerning, can be addressed after attending to the client with potential stroke symptoms.

4. When educating a patient on the use of levodopa-carbidopa, which information should the nurse include?

• A. It is a cure for Parkinson's disease
• B. Monitor for dyskinesia
• C. It can be taken at any time
• D. It has no side effects

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Monitor for dyskinesia.' Levodopa-carbidopa can cause dyskinesia as a side effect, which is characterized by involuntary muscle movements. Patients need to be monitored for this adverse effect and instructed to report it to their healthcare provider. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because levodopa-carbidopa is not a cure for Parkinson's disease, it should be taken at specific times for optimal effect, and it does have side effects, such as dyskinesia.

5. When teaching a client about the use of lisinopril, which of the following should be included?

• A. It can cause a persistent cough
• B. It is a calcium channel blocker
• C. It is safe during pregnancy
• D. It should be taken with food

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor, and a common side effect associated with its use is a persistent cough. This is important information that the client should be aware of. Choice B is incorrect because lisinopril is not a calcium channel blocker, it is an ACE inhibitor. Choice C is incorrect as lisinopril is not considered safe during pregnancy, especially during the second and third trimesters as it can cause harm to the fetus. Choice D is incorrect because lisinopril is typically recommended to be taken on an empty stomach, about an hour before meals.

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