Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has been experiencing repeated tonic-clonic seizures over the course of 30 min. After maintaining the client’s airway and turning the client on their side, which of the following medications should the nurse administer?

• A. Diazepam IV
• B. Lorazepam PO
• C. Diltiazem IV
• D. Clonazepam PO

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the scenario of a client experiencing prolonged seizures, such as status epilepticus, the priority is to administer a benzodiazepine to stop the seizure activity. Diazepam is the medication of choice for this situation due to its rapid onset of action and effectiveness in terminating seizures quickly. Lorazepam, although another benzodiazepine, is typically given through routes other than oral (PO) administration in emergency situations. Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker used for cardiac conditions, not for seizure management. Clonazepam is a benzodiazepine, but it is usually not the first choice in the acute management of status epilepticus.

2. A client newly diagnosed with asthma is receiving discharge instructions from a nurse. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will use my fluticasone inhaler to treat asthma attacks.
• B. I will use a peak flow meter once a week.
• C. I will keep a diary of when I use my albuterol inhaler.
• D. I will limit my fluid intake to prevent mucus production.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Keeping a diary of albuterol use helps monitor the frequency and severity of asthma symptoms, which can guide the healthcare provider in adjusting treatment as needed. Option A is incorrect because fluticasone is a controller medication used for long-term management, not for treating acute asthma attacks. Option B is incorrect as using a peak flow meter once a week may not provide real-time information on asthma control. Option D is incorrect as limiting fluid intake does not directly prevent mucus production in asthma.

3. A nurse is planning care to prevent complications in a client with immobility. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?

• A. Massage lower extremities daily to prevent DVT
• B. Remove anti-embolism stockings for 3 hours each day
• C. Limit intake of foods high in calcium to prevent renal calculi
• D. Encourage the client to lie supine to prevent constipation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because removing anti-embolism stockings for short periods prevents skin breakdown while ensuring that the stockings remain effective in promoting circulation. Choice A is incorrect because massaging lower extremities daily does not prevent DVT; instead, it may dislodge a clot. Choice C is incorrect as limiting intake of foods high in calcium does not prevent renal calculi; rather, it may help reduce the risk of kidney stones. Choice D is incorrect because encouraging the client to lie supine does not prevent constipation; instead, encouraging mobility and adequate fluid intake can help prevent constipation in immobile clients.

4. A nurse is caring for a client with encephalopathy secondary to liver failure. The client has been prescribed a high-calorie, low-protein diet. Which of the following meal selections is appropriate for this client?

• A. Scrambled eggs, bacon, and pancakes
• B. Grilled cheese sandwich, potato chips, chocolate pudding
• C. Steak, French fries, corn
• D. Chicken breast, mashed potatoes, spinach

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Chicken breast provides a low-fat protein source, and mashed potatoes and spinach provide high-calorie nutrients suitable for managing liver failure. Option A (Scrambled eggs, bacon, and pancakes) is high in protein, which is not suitable for a low-protein diet. Option B (Grilled cheese sandwich, potato chips, chocolate pudding) contains high protein and may not be appropriate for the client. Option C (Steak, French fries, corn) is high in protein and fat, which are not recommended for this client's dietary requirements.

5. A nurse is preparing to administer an intramuscular injection to an adult client. At what angle should the nurse administer the medication using the ventrogluteal site?

• A. 90-degree angle
• B. 60-degree angle
• C. 75-degree angle
• D. 45-degree angle

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 90-degree angle. The ventrogluteal site is preferred for intramuscular injections because it is away from major nerves and blood vessels. Administering the injection at a 90-degree angle ensures that the medication reaches deep into the muscle tissue, allowing for proper absorption of the drug. Choice B, 60-degree angle, is incorrect as it is not the recommended angle for the ventrogluteal site. Choice C, 75-degree angle, and Choice D, 45-degree angle, are also incorrect as they are not the appropriate angles for administering an intramuscular injection using the ventrogluteal site.

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