ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Pharmacology 1 Quiz
1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a hepatitis B vaccine. Which of the following should the healthcare professional verify?
- A. Client's allergy to eggs
- B. Client's vaccination history
- C. Client's weight
- D. Client's blood pressure
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Client's vaccination history. Before administering the hepatitis B vaccine, it is essential to verify the client's vaccination history to ensure they are due for the vaccine. This helps in preventing unnecessary vaccinations and ensures the appropriate timing and dosage. Option A, the client's allergy to eggs, is not directly related to administering the hepatitis B vaccine. Option C, the client's weight, and option D, the client's blood pressure, are not factors that need to be specifically verified before administering the hepatitis B vaccine.
2. A client with lactose intolerance needs to increase calcium intake. Which food should the nurse recommend?
- A. Spinach
- B. Peanut butter
- C. Ground beef
- D. Carrots
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Spinach is a suitable choice to recommend for increasing calcium intake to a client with lactose intolerance. Spinach is a good non-dairy source of calcium. Peanut butter, ground beef, and carrots are not significant sources of calcium. Peanut butter is high in protein and fats, ground beef is a source of protein and iron, and carrots are rich in vitamin A and fiber, but none of these choices provide a substantial amount of calcium.
3. A nurse is preparing to administer an enteral tube feeding through an NG tube at 250 mL over 4 hr. The nurse should set the pump to deliver how many mL/hr?
- A. 60 mL/hr
- B. 62 mL/hr
- C. 63 mL/hr
- D. 65 mL/hr
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Calculation: 250 mL / 4 hours = 62.5 mL/hr, which should be rounded up to 63 mL/hr. This ensures the correct rate is set for continuous feeding. Choice A (60 mL/hr) is incorrect as it does not reflect the accurate calculation. Choice B (62 mL/hr) is close but does not round up to the nearest whole number as required. Choice D (65 mL/hr) is higher than the correct calculation and would deliver the feeding solution at a faster rate than prescribed.
4. A healthcare professional is assessing a client for potential complications after surgery. Which of the following should the healthcare professional monitor for?
- A. Decreased urine output
- B. Increased appetite
- C. Improved mobility
- D. Normal temperature
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Decreased urine output can indicate renal complications or dehydration, which are common post-surgical complications. Monitoring urine output is crucial for detecting early signs of kidney dysfunction or fluid imbalances. Increased appetite, improved mobility, and normal temperature are not typical signs of immediate post-surgical complications and would not be the priority for monitoring in this case.
5. A client at 28 weeks of gestation is experiencing preterm labor. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?
- A. Oxytocin
- B. Nifedipine
- C. Dinoprostone
- D. Misoprostol
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Nifedipine is the correct choice in this scenario. It is a calcium channel blocker that helps suppress uterine contractions and halt preterm labor. Nifedipine is commonly used to manage preterm labor in pregnant women by relaxing the smooth muscle of the uterus. Oxytocin (Choice A) is used to induce or augment labor, not to inhibit contractions. Dinoprostone (Choice C) and Misoprostol (Choice D) are prostaglandins used for cervical ripening and induction of labor, not for stopping preterm labor.
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