a nurse is preparing to administer a controlled substance which of the following actions is required
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

LPN Pharmacology Practice Test

1. When preparing to administer a controlled substance, which of the following actions is required?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When administering controlled substances, it is crucial to have a second nurse witness the disposal of the medication. This measure ensures proper handling, reduces the risk of diversion, and promotes compliance with regulations regarding controlled substances. Having a second nurse witness the disposal is a safeguard to maintain accountability and prevent any potential misuse or errors during the disposal process. Checking the client's identification bracelet and allergy status are important steps in medication administration but are not specifically required for controlled substances. Documenting the administration in the client's medical record is essential but does not specifically relate to the disposal of controlled substances.

2. A client is admitted to the hospital with a venous stasis leg ulcer. The nurse inspects the ulcer expecting to note which observation?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When assessing a venous stasis leg ulcer, the nurse should expect to note a brownish or 'brawny' appearance. This discoloration is often due to hemosiderin deposits. The correct answer is not A because venous stasis ulcers typically do not have a pale-colored base. Choice B is incorrect as venous stasis ulcers usually have irregular, shallow edges, not deep and even edges. Choice C is incorrect as venous stasis ulcers often have excess granulation tissue, not little granulation tissue. Recognizing the brownish or 'brawny' appearance is crucial for accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment of venous stasis leg ulcers.

3. A client with heart failure is prescribed an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. The nurse should reinforce which instruction?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to report a persistent dry cough. ACE inhibitors can cause a common side effect of a persistent dry cough, which should be promptly reported to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and possible medication adjustment. Option A is incorrect because the timing of ACE inhibitor administration is usually not specified to be at bedtime. Option C is incorrect as increasing potassium-rich foods can lead to hyperkalemia when taking ACE inhibitors. Option D is incorrect because ACE inhibitors can be taken with or without food.

4. The client is receiving heparin therapy for deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which lab test should be monitored to evaluate the effectiveness of heparin?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the appropriate lab test to monitor the therapeutic effectiveness of heparin therapy. Heparin affects the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, and monitoring aPTT helps ensure the client is within the therapeutic range to prevent clot formation. Prothrombin time (PT) and International normalized ratio (INR) are used to monitor warfarin therapy, a different anticoagulant that affects the extrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade. Fibrinogen levels are not specific to monitoring heparin therapy.

5. After administering nitroglycerin to a client with coronary artery disease (CAD) who reports chest pain, what should be the nurse's next priority action?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct next priority action after administering nitroglycerin to a client with CAD experiencing chest pain is to monitor the client's blood pressure. Nitroglycerin can cause hypotension, so it is crucial to assess and monitor the client's blood pressure for any signs of decreased perfusion or adverse effects. Obtaining a 12-lead ECG may be important but is not the immediate priority. Notifying the healthcare provider and administering a second dose of nitroglycerin should only be considered after ensuring the client's blood pressure is stable.

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