Nursing Elites

1. When preparing to administer a controlled substance, which of the following actions is required?

• A. Check the client's identification bracelet.
• B. Check the client's allergy status.
• C. Have a second nurse witness disposal of the medication.
• D. Document the administration in the client's medical record.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When administering controlled substances, it is crucial to have a second nurse witness the disposal of the medication. This measure ensures proper handling, reduces the risk of diversion, and promotes compliance with regulations regarding controlled substances. Having a second nurse witness the disposal is a safeguard to maintain accountability and prevent any potential misuse or errors during the disposal process. Checking the client's identification bracelet and allergy status are important steps in medication administration but are not specifically required for controlled substances. Documenting the administration in the client's medical record is essential but does not specifically relate to the disposal of controlled substances.

2. A client has a history of left-sided heart failure. The nurse should look for the presence of which finding to determine whether the problem is currently active?

• A. Presence of ascites
• B. Bilateral lung crackles
• C. Jugular vein distention
• D. Pedal edema bilaterally

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When assessing a client with a history of left-sided heart failure, the presence of bilateral lung crackles is a key finding to determine if the condition is currently active. Crackles in the lungs indicate fluid accumulation, a common sign of left-sided heart failure due to pulmonary congestion. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because ascites, jugular vein distention, and pedal edema are more commonly associated with right-sided heart failure.

3. The client with a history of left-sided heart failure is exhibiting increasing shortness of breath and frothy sputum. What is the priority nursing action?

• A. Administer oxygen
• B. Encourage coughing and deep breathing
• C. Place the client in a supine position
• D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Shortness of breath and frothy sputum are indicative of pulmonary edema, a serious condition that requires immediate intervention to improve oxygenation. Administering oxygen is the priority action to support the client's respiratory function and prevent further deterioration. Oxygen therapy helps increase the oxygen levels in the blood, alleviate respiratory distress, and support vital organ function. Prompt intervention with oxygen can help stabilize the client while further assessments and treatments are initiated. Encouraging coughing and deep breathing may worsen the client's condition by increasing respiratory effort. Placing the client in a supine position can further compromise breathing in a client with pulmonary edema. Notifying the healthcare provider is important but not the priority when the client's respiratory status is deteriorating.

4. The client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide (Lasix). Which electrolyte imbalance is the nurse most likely to monitor for?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypernatremia
• C. Hypokalemia
• D. Hyponatremia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, commonly causes potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia. The nurse should closely monitor for decreased potassium levels in a client receiving furosemide to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias or muscle weakness. Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is not typically associated with furosemide use. Hypernatremia (Choice B) refers to high sodium levels and is not the primary concern with furosemide. Hyponatremia (Choice D) is low sodium levels, which can occur but is less common than hypokalemia in clients taking furosemide.

5. A client has a new prescription for transdermal nitroglycerin patches. Which of the following instructions should be included for proper use?

• A. Apply the patch to the same site each day.
• B. Place the patch on an area of skin away from skin folds and joints.
• C. Keep the patch on 24 hours per day.
• D. Replace the patch every 72 hours.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Placing the nitroglycerin patch on an area of skin away from skin folds and joints is crucial to ensure optimal absorption and effectiveness of the medication. Placing the patch on skin folds or joints can interfere with absorption, potentially reducing the patch's efficacy. Therefore, it is essential to follow this instruction to maximize the therapeutic benefits of the nitroglycerin patches. The other options are incorrect because applying the patch to the same site each day can lead to skin irritation, keeping the patch on 24 hours per day may not be necessary depending on the specific patch instructions, and replacing the patch every 72 hours is not the standard frequency for nitroglycerin patches.

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