Nursing Elites

1. A client expresses doubt about the benefits of surgery. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?

• A. Ask the client to explain why they believe the surgery won't help.
• B. Comment on the client's doubt regarding the procedure's benefits.
• C. Assure the client that everything will be fine.
• D. Acknowledge the client's uncertainty about the surgery.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Option D is the most appropriate response as it acknowledges the client's expressed uncertainty about the surgery. By acknowledging the client's feelings, the nurse validates their concerns and opens the door for further discussion. This approach can help build trust and rapport with the client. Option A focuses more on seeking justification for the client's belief rather than addressing the underlying emotion. Option B, while acknowledging doubt, does not directly address the client's feelings. Option C, although well-intentioned, dismisses the client's concerns without exploring them further.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who is prescribed spironolactone. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor for this client?

• A. Total bilirubin.
• B. Urine ketones.
• C. Serum potassium.
• D. Platelet count.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Serum potassium. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, meaning it helps the body retain potassium. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client's serum potassium levels to prevent hyperkalemia, which can be a potential side effect of spironolactone. Monitoring total bilirubin levels (A) is not specifically required for clients taking spironolactone. Urine ketones (B) are not directly influenced by spironolactone use. Platelet count (D) is not typically monitored in clients taking spironolactone.

3. What is the role of a nurse in managing a patient with acute kidney injury (AKI)?

• A. Monitor urine output and electrolyte levels
• B. Administer diuretics and restrict potassium
• C. Provide dietary education and monitor fluid intake
• D. Administer antibiotics and check for dehydration

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Monitor urine output and electrolyte levels.' In managing a patient with acute kidney injury (AKI), it is crucial for the nurse to monitor urine output and electrolyte levels to assess kidney function and the patient's fluid and electrolyte balance. This monitoring helps in early detection of any worsening kidney function or electrolyte imbalances. Choice B is incorrect because administering diuretics and restricting potassium may not be appropriate for all AKI patients and should be done under the direction of a healthcare provider. Choice C is also incorrect as providing dietary education and monitoring fluid intake are important but do not directly address the immediate management of AKI. Choice D is incorrect as administering antibiotics and checking for dehydration are not primary interventions for managing AKI; antibiotics are only given if there is an infection contributing to AKI, and dehydration should be managed but is not the primary role of the nurse in AKI management.

4. How should a healthcare professional assess a patient with potential pneumonia?

• A. Assess lung sounds and monitor oxygen saturation
• B. Monitor for fever and sputum production
• C. Auscultate heart sounds and check for cyanosis
• D. Monitor for chest pain and administer oxygen

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correctly assessing a patient with potential pneumonia involves listening to lung sounds and monitoring oxygen saturation. Lung sounds can reveal abnormal breath sounds associated with pneumonia, such as crackles or diminished breath sounds. Oxygen saturation monitoring helps in detecting respiratory distress, a common complication of pneumonia. Monitoring for fever and sputum production (Choice B) is important but not as specific as assessing lung sounds and oxygen saturation. Auscultating heart sounds and checking for cyanosis (Choice C) are not primary assessments for pneumonia. Monitoring for chest pain and administering oxygen (Choice D) are relevant interventions but do not address the initial assessment of pneumonia.

5. Which of the following is a realistic short-term goal to be accomplished in 2 to 3 days for a client with delirium?

• A. Explain the experience of having delirium
• B. Resume a normal sleep-wake cycle
• C. Regain orientation to time and place
• D. Establish normal bowel and bladder function

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Regaining orientation to time and place is a realistic short-term goal for clients with delirium. It helps the individual become aware of their surroundings and current situation, aiding in reducing confusion and disorientation. Choice A is incorrect because the goal is focused on the client's understanding, not on explaining the experience of delirium. Choice B, resuming a normal sleep-wake cycle, may take longer than 2 to 3 days to achieve and is not directly related to regaining orientation. Choice D, establishing normal bowel and bladder function, is important but may not be a short-term goal specifically related to delirium.

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