Nursing Elites

1. A client expresses doubt about the benefits of surgery. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?

• A. Ask the client to explain why they believe the surgery won't help.
• B. Comment on the client's doubt regarding the procedure's benefits.
• C. Assure the client that everything will be fine.
• D. Acknowledge the client's uncertainty about the surgery.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Option D is the most appropriate response as it acknowledges the client's expressed uncertainty about the surgery. By acknowledging the client's feelings, the nurse validates their concerns and opens the door for further discussion. This approach can help build trust and rapport with the client. Option A focuses more on seeking justification for the client's belief rather than addressing the underlying emotion. Option B, while acknowledging doubt, does not directly address the client's feelings. Option C, although well-intentioned, dismisses the client's concerns without exploring them further.

2. A nurse is reviewing the plan of care for a client who is receiving oxygen therapy. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include to prevent complications?

• A. Check the client's oxygen saturation every 2 hours
• B. Provide humidified oxygen
• C. Instruct the client to perform deep breathing exercises
• D. Use an oxygen mask for delivery

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Provide humidified oxygen. Providing humidified oxygen helps prevent dryness and irritation of the respiratory tract during oxygen therapy. This intervention is crucial in preventing complications such as mucous membrane dryness and potential damage to the airways. Checking the client's oxygen saturation every 2 hours (choice A) is essential for monitoring the client's response to therapy but does not directly prevent complications. Instructing the client to perform deep breathing exercises (choice C) is beneficial for respiratory function but does not directly address preventing complications related to oxygen therapy. Using an oxygen mask for delivery (choice D) is a common method of administering oxygen but does not specifically focus on preventing complications like dryness and irritation.

3. What are the steps in managing a patient with a pressure ulcer?

• A. Clean the wound and apply a hydrocolloid dressing
• B. Debride necrotic tissue and apply antibiotics
• C. Apply an alginate dressing and elevate the affected area
• D. Use moisture-retentive dressings and reposition frequently

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Clean the wound and apply a hydrocolloid dressing. This step is crucial in managing a pressure ulcer as it helps protect the ulcer from infection and promotes healing by creating a moist environment conducive to tissue repair. Choice B, debriding necrotic tissue and applying antibiotics, is more suitable for managing infected pressure ulcers but not as the initial step. Choice C, applying an alginate dressing and elevating the affected area, may be part of the management but is not the initial step. Choice D, using moisture-retentive dressings and repositioning frequently, is important for prevention but not the first step in managing an existing pressure ulcer.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who has a calcium level of 8.0 mg/dL. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Constipation
• B. Absent deep-tendon reflexes
• C. Nausea and vomiting
• D. Tingling of the extremities

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Correct! A calcium level of 8.0 mg/dL indicates hypocalcemia. Hypocalcemia can lead to increased neuromuscular excitability, manifesting as tingling of the extremities. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect findings associated with other electrolyte imbalances or conditions and are not typically related to hypocalcemia. Constipation is commonly seen in hypokalemia, absent deep-tendon reflexes are associated with hypermagnesemia, and nausea and vomiting are more indicative of hypercalcemia.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who is prescribed spironolactone. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor for this client?

• A. Total bilirubin.
• B. Urine ketones.
• C. Serum potassium.
• D. Platelet count.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Serum potassium. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, meaning it helps the body retain potassium. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client's serum potassium levels to prevent hyperkalemia, which can be a potential side effect of spironolactone. Monitoring total bilirubin levels (A) is not specifically required for clients taking spironolactone. Urine ketones (B) are not directly influenced by spironolactone use. Platelet count (D) is not typically monitored in clients taking spironolactone.

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