ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2020
1. A nurse is caring for a 37-year-old woman with metastatic ovarian cancer admitted for nausea and vomiting. The physician orders total parenteral nutrition (TPN), a nutritional consult, and diet recall. Which of the following is the BEST indication that the patient's nutritional status has improved after 4 days?
- A. The patient eats most of the food served to her
- B. The patient has gained 1 pound since admission
- C. The patient's albumin level is 4.0mg/dL
- D. The patient's hemoglobin is 8.5g/dL
Correct answer: C
Rationale: An improved albumin level is the best indicator of improved nutritional status after TPN. Albumin is a key protein that reflects the body's overall nutritional status and is commonly used to assess nutritional health. Choices A, B, and D are not as reliable indicators of improved nutritional status. Choice A may not accurately reflect nutritional improvement as it could be influenced by factors other than nutrition. Choice B may indicate fluid retention or loss rather than true nutritional improvement. Choice D, hemoglobin level, is more related to anemia and oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood, rather than nutritional status.
2. What is the first nursing action when caring for a client with a wound infection?
- A. Change the dressing every 12 hours
- B. Perform a wound culture before applying antibiotics
- C. Cleanse the wound with normal saline
- D. Apply a wet-to-dry dressing to the wound
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The first nursing action when caring for a client with a wound infection is to perform a wound culture before applying antibiotics. This step is crucial to identify the specific infecting organism and determine the most effective antibiotic therapy. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because changing the dressing, cleansing the wound, or applying a wet-to-dry dressing should only be done after obtaining the culture results and starting appropriate antibiotic treatment.
3. A charge nurse is observing a newly licensed nurse apply sterile gloves. Which of the following actions by the newly licensed nurse demonstrates sterile technique?
- A. Putting a glove on the dominant hand first
- B. Removing gloves and putting on a sterile gown first
- C. Putting sterile gloves last
- D. Applying gloves without touching outer surfaces
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Putting the glove on the dominant hand first is a key step in maintaining sterile technique as it reduces the risk of contamination. By covering the dominant hand first, the nurse minimizes the risk of contaminating the other hand during the glove application process. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B introduces the concept of a sterile gown, which is not relevant to the question about applying sterile gloves. Choice C is incorrect as putting sterile gloves last does not follow the correct sequence of steps in maintaining sterility. Choice D, while important, is not as critical as covering the dominant hand first when applying sterile gloves.
4. How should a healthcare provider assess and manage a patient with hyperthyroidism?
- A. Administer beta-blockers and monitor for signs of thyroid storm
- B. Encourage a high-protein, low-iodine diet
- C. Monitor for signs of bradycardia
- D. Provide iodine supplements and check for arrhythmias
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering beta-blockers is the initial management for hyperthyroidism to control symptoms such as tachycardia and tremors. Monitoring for signs of thyroid storm is crucial as it is a life-threatening complication of hyperthyroidism. Encouraging a high-protein, low-iodine diet (choice B) is not the primary intervention for managing hyperthyroidism. Monitoring for signs of bradycardia (choice C) is not typically seen in hyperthyroidism, as it often presents with tachycardia. Providing iodine supplements and checking for arrhythmias (choice D) are contraindicated in hyperthyroidism as they can worsen the condition.
5. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medical records of a client who has a pressure ulcer. Which of the following is an expected finding?
- A. Serum albumin level of 3 g/dL
- B. HDL level of 90 mg/dL
- C. Norton scale score of 18
- D. Braden scale score of 20
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A serum albumin level of 3 g/dL is indicative of poor nutrition, which is commonly associated with pressure ulcers. This finding suggests that the client may be at risk for developing or already has a pressure ulcer due to malnutrition. High-density lipoprotein (HDL) level of 90 mg/dL (Choice B) is not directly related to pressure ulcers. The Norton scale (Choice C) is used to assess a client's risk of developing pressure ulcers, not as a finding in a client with an existing pressure ulcer. The Braden scale (Choice D) is also a tool used to assess the risk of developing pressure ulcers, not a finding in a client with an existing pressure ulcer.
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