Nursing Elites

1. A client with heart failure is receiving furosemide. Which of the following assessment findings indicates that the medication is effective?

• A. Elevated blood pressure.
• B. Absence of adventitious breath sounds.
• C. Weight gain of 1.4 kg (3 lb) in 24 hr.
• D. Decreased urine output.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The absence of adventitious breath sounds indicates that furosemide is effective in managing heart failure. Adventitious breath sounds such as crackles indicate fluid accumulation in the lungs, a common complication of heart failure. Therefore, the absence of these abnormal sounds suggests that furosemide is effectively reducing fluid overload. Elevated blood pressure (choice A) is not a desired outcome in heart failure management. Weight gain (choice C) and decreased urine output (choice D) are signs of fluid retention and ineffective diuresis, indicating that furosemide is not working effectively.

2. A client with dementia is at risk of falls. Which intervention should the nurse implement to ensure safety?

• A. Use restraints to prevent the client from leaving the bed
• B. Use a bed exit alarm to notify staff when the client tries to leave the bed
• C. Encourage frequent ambulation with assistance
• D. Raise all four side rails to prevent falls

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with dementia at risk of falls is to use a bed exit alarm to notify staff when the client tries to leave the bed. This intervention helps prevent falls while still allowing some freedom of movement. Choice A is incorrect because using restraints can lead to complications and is considered a form of restraint which should be avoided. Choice C is not suitable for a client at high risk of falls due to dementia as it may increase the risk of falls. Choice D is not recommended as raising all four side rails can be considered a form of physical restraint and may not be the best approach to prevent falls in a client with dementia.

3. A healthcare provider is reviewing the medical record of a client who has hypertension. Which of the following findings should the provider identify as a risk factor for this condition?

• A. Age 25 years
• B. Family history of hypotension
• C. Obesity
• D. History of hypotension

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Obesity. Obesity is a significant risk factor for hypertension due to its impact on the cardiovascular system. Obesity can lead to increased blood pressure due to the additional workload placed on the heart and blood vessels. Age alone does not necessarily predispose someone to hypertension, and a family history of hypotension or a personal history of hypotension would not increase the risk of developing hypertension. Family history of hypotension is not a known risk factor for hypertension, and a history of hypotension actually indicates low blood pressure, which is the opposite of hypertension.

4. When collecting data from a client with posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD), which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?

• A. Amnesia
• B. Hypervigilance
• C. Hallucinations
• D. Severe agitation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct manifestation to expect when collecting data from a client with PTSD is hypervigilance. Hypervigilance refers to increased alertness, which is a common symptom of PTSD. This heightened state of awareness is characterized by an exaggerated startle response, being easily startled, and constantly scanning the environment for potential threats. Amnesia (choice A) is not typically a primary manifestation of PTSD; it is more commonly associated with dissociative disorders. Hallucinations (choice C) involve perceiving things that are not present and are not typically a hallmark symptom of PTSD. Severe agitation (choice D) may occur in individuals with PTSD, but hypervigilance is a more specific and common manifestation associated with this disorder.

5. How should a healthcare provider assess a patient with sepsis?

• A. Monitor vital signs and administer fluids
• B. Monitor for fever and administer antibiotics
• C. Check for tachycardia and elevated white blood cell count
• D. Administer fluids and provide nutritional support

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In sepsis, it is crucial to monitor vital signs to assess the patient's condition and administer fluids to maintain circulation. This approach helps in stabilizing blood pressure and perfusion. While monitoring for fever and administering antibiotics (choice B) is important in managing sepsis, the initial priority lies in assessing and stabilizing the patient's hemodynamic status. Checking for tachycardia and elevated white blood cell count (choice C) can be part of the assessment but does not encompass the immediate intervention needed in sepsis. Administering fluids and providing nutritional support (choice D) are essential in managing sepsis, but the primary step should be to assess the patient's condition through vital sign monitoring.

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