Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is planning care for a client who has a pressure ulcer. Which of the following actions should the healthcare provider take?

• A. Massage the reddened area.
• B. Apply a heating pad to the area.
• C. Elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees.
• D. Reposition the client every 2 hours.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Repositioning the client every 2 hours is crucial in preventing pressure ulcers from worsening. This action helps relieve pressure on specific areas, improving circulation and reducing the risk of tissue damage. Massaging the reddened area can further damage the skin, applying heat can increase the risk of skin breakdown, and elevating the head of the bed to 45 degrees may not directly address the pressure ulcer prevention. Proper positioning is essential to avoid prolonged pressure on the affected areas and promote healing.

2. A client with pancreatitis is being taught about dietary management. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should increase my intake of high-fat foods.
• B. I should decrease my intake of high-fat foods.
• C. I should increase my intake of high-protein foods.
• D. I should decrease my intake of high-protein foods.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Decreasing the intake of high-fat foods is essential in managing pancreatitis as high-fat foods can exacerbate symptoms and lead to complications. By reducing high-fat foods in their diet, the client demonstrates an understanding of the dietary management needed for pancreatitis. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing high-fat foods (Choice A) is not recommended for pancreatitis as it can worsen the condition. While high-protein foods (Choice C) can be beneficial in some cases, the primary focus in pancreatitis management is on reducing fat intake. Decreasing high-protein foods (Choice D) is not a key dietary management approach for pancreatitis.

3. When assessing a client with diabetes mellitus experiencing DKA, which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Tremors
• B. Urine retention
• C. Kussmaul respirations
• D. Bradypnea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Kussmaul respirations are a type of deep and labored breathing pattern associated with severe metabolic acidosis, commonly observed in diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). In DKA, the body tries to compensate for the acidic environment by increasing the respiratory rate, resulting in Kussmaul respirations. This helps eliminate excess carbon dioxide and reduce the acidity of the blood. Tremors (Choice A) are not typically associated with DKA. Urine retention (Choice B) is not a common finding in DKA; in fact, clients with DKA often have polyuria due to the osmotic diuresis caused by high blood glucose levels. Bradypnea (Choice D), which is abnormally slow breathing rate, is not a characteristic finding in DKA where the respiratory rate is usually increased to compensate for metabolic acidosis.

4. When teaching a client with a new diagnosis of diabetes mellitus about foot care, which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Soak your feet in hot water every day.
• B. Apply lotion between your toes.
• C. Inspect your feet daily.
• D. Use over-the-counter products to remove corns.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Inspecting the feet daily is crucial for clients with diabetes mellitus to detect early signs of injury or infection promptly. This practice helps prevent serious complications such as diabetic foot ulcers. Soaking feet in hot water daily can lead to skin dryness and increase the risk of injury. Applying lotion between toes can cause moisture buildup, leading to fungal infections. Using over-the-counter products to remove corns can result in skin damage and should be done under healthcare provider supervision.

5. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who has acute renal failure. Which of the following laboratory results should the healthcare provider expect?

• A. Decreased blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
• B. Decreased creatinine
• C. Increased potassium
• D. Increased calcium

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In acute renal failure, the kidneys are unable to excrete potassium efficiently, which can lead to hyperkalemia. As a result, an increased potassium level is a common finding in clients with acute renal failure. Hyperkalemia can have serious cardiac effects, making it essential for healthcare providers to monitor and manage potassium levels closely in clients with renal impairment. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because in acute renal failure, blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels typically rise due to decreased renal function. Calcium levels are more likely to be decreased in acute renal failure due to impaired activation of vitamin D and subsequent decreased calcium absorption.

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