Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is planning an education session for an older adult client who has just learned that she has type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following strategies should the nurse plan to use with this client?

• A. Allow extra time for the client to respond to questions
• B. Expect the client to have difficulty understanding the information
• C. Avoid references to the client’s past experiences
• D. Keep the learning session private and one-on-one

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Choice A, allowing extra time for the client to respond to questions, is the appropriate strategy when educating an older adult with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Older adults may need additional time to process information and formulate responses. Choice B is incorrect as it assumes the client will have difficulty understanding the information, which may not be the case. Choice C is incorrect because referencing the client's past experiences can help personalize the education session. Choice D is also incorrect as keeping the learning session private and one-on-one may not be necessary for all clients and may limit the potential benefits of group education and support.

2. A child weighing 20 kg has a new prescription for cefoxitin at 80 mg/kg/day administered intravenously every 6 hours. How much cefoxitin should be administered with each dose?

• A. 400 mg
• B. 200 mg
• C. 1600 mg
• D. 100 mg

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To determine the amount of cefoxitin to be administered with each dose, first, calculate the total daily dose by multiplying the child's weight (20 kg) by the prescribed dose (80 mg/kg/day): 80 mg/kg/day × 20 kg = 1600 mg/day. Since the medication is administered every 6 hours (4 doses/day), divide the total daily dose by the number of doses: 1600 mg / 4 = 400 mg. Therefore, each dose should be 400 mg. Choice B (200 mg) is incorrect because it is half the calculated dose. Choice C (1600 mg) is incorrect as it represents the total daily dose, not the dose per administration. Choice D (100 mg) is incorrect as it is a quarter of the calculated dose.

3. What intervention is most important for the LPN/LVN to implement for a male client experiencing urinary retention?

• A. Apply a condom catheter.
• B. Apply a skin protectant.
• C. Encourage increased fluid intake.
• D. Assess for bladder distention.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most important intervention for the LPN/LVN to implement for a male client experiencing urinary retention is to assess for bladder distention. This assessment is crucial as it helps identify the underlying cause of urinary retention, such as bladder distention or obstruction. By assessing the bladder, the LPN/LVN can determine the appropriate interventions needed, such as catheterization, medication administration, or further evaluation by the healthcare provider. Applying a condom catheter (Choice A) is more suitable for urinary incontinence, not retention. Applying a skin protectant (Choice B) is typically done to prevent skin breakdown in incontinent clients. Encouraging increased fluid intake (Choice C) may be beneficial for some urinary issues but is not the priority intervention for urinary retention.

4. A nurse in a health clinic is caring for a 20-year-old client who tells the nurse that their last physical exam was in high school. Which of the following health screenings should the nurse expect the provider to perform for this client?

• A. Testicular examination
• B. Blood glucose
• C. Fecal occult blood
• D. Prostate-specific antigen

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A testicular examination is appropriate for a 20-year-old male to screen for testicular cancer, which is more common in younger age groups. Testicular cancer is most frequently diagnosed in individuals between the ages of 15 and 40. Blood glucose screening is typically recommended for older individuals or those at risk for diabetes. Fecal occult blood testing is used for colorectal cancer screening, usually starting at age 50. Prostate-specific antigen testing is commonly considered for prostate cancer screening in older males, typically around age 50. Therefore, the most appropriate screening for the 20-year-old client is the testicular examination.

5. While observing a student nurse administering a narcotic analgesic IM injection without aspirating, what should the nurse do?

• A. Ask the student, 'What did you forget to do?'
• B. Stop and explain why aspiration is needed.
• C. Quietly state, 'You forgot to aspirate.'
• D. Walk up and whisper in the student's ear, 'Stop. Aspirate. Then inject.'

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When the nurse observes a student nurse making a mistake during a procedure, such as not aspirating before administering a medication, the nurse should provide immediate, discreet feedback to correct the error. Walking up and whispering in the student's ear to stop, aspirate, and then inject is appropriate as it corrects the mistake while maintaining the student's dignity and confidence. Option A is not as effective as it indirectly addresses the issue. Option B is not the best approach as the student needs immediate correction. Option C is not ideal as loudly stating the mistake may embarrass the student and is not necessary for a discreet correction.

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