Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is planning an education session for an older adult client who has just learned that she has type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following strategies should the nurse plan to use with this client?

• A. Allow extra time for the client to respond to questions
• B. Expect the client to have difficulty understanding the information
• C. Avoid references to the client’s past experiences
• D. Keep the learning session private and one-on-one

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Choice A, allowing extra time for the client to respond to questions, is the appropriate strategy when educating an older adult with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Older adults may need additional time to process information and formulate responses. Choice B is incorrect as it assumes the client will have difficulty understanding the information, which may not be the case. Choice C is incorrect because referencing the client's past experiences can help personalize the education session. Choice D is also incorrect as keeping the learning session private and one-on-one may not be necessary for all clients and may limit the potential benefits of group education and support.

2. A nurse in a provider's office is assessing a client who has heart failure. The client has gained weight since her last visit, and her ankles are edematous. Which of the following findings by the nurse is another clinical manifestation of fluid volume excess?

• A. Bounding pulse
• B. Decreased blood pressure
• C. Dry mucous membranes
• D. Weak pulse

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A bounding pulse is indicative of fluid volume excess. In this case, the client's weight gain and edematous ankles already suggest fluid volume overload. A bounding pulse occurs due to increased blood volume and pressure. Choices B, C, and D are not indicative of fluid volume excess. Decreased blood pressure, dry mucous membranes, and weak pulse are more commonly associated with conditions such as dehydration or hypovolemia, where there is a decrease in fluid volume rather than an excess.

3. The nurse is caring for an older adult patient with a diagnosis of urinary tract infection (UTI). Upon assessment, the nurse finds the patient confused and agitated. How will the nurse interpret these assessment findings?

• A. These are normal signs of aging.
• B. These are early signs of dementia.
• C. These are purely psychological in origin.
• D. These are common manifestations with UTIs.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should interpret confusion and agitation in an older adult patient with a UTI as common manifestations of the infection. In older patients, confusion is a primary symptom of a compromised state due to an acute urinary tract infection or fever. Choice A is incorrect as confusion and agitation are not normal signs of aging. Choice B is incorrect because these symptoms are more likely related to the UTI rather than early signs of dementia. Choice C is incorrect as confusion and agitation in this context are not purely psychological but are likely physiological responses to the UTI.

4. The nurse is caring for a 4-year-old 2 hours after tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy. Which of the following assessments must be reported immediately?

• A. Vomiting of dark emesis
• B. Complaints of throat pain
• C. Apical heart rate of 110
• D. Increased restlessness

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Increased restlessness must be reported immediately as it may indicate bleeding or other complications post-tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy. This could be a sign of a developing issue that requires urgent intervention. Vomiting of dark emesis, complaints of throat pain, and an apical heart rate of 110 are important to monitor but do not indicate an immediate need for reporting as compared to the potential seriousness of increased restlessness in this scenario.

5. Which client statement from the assessment data is likely to explain their noncompliance with propranolol hydrochloride (Inderal)?

• A. I have problems with diarrhea.
• B. I have difficulty falling asleep.
• C. I have diminished sexual function.
• D. I often feel jittery.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Propranolol hydrochloride (Inderal) is known to cause side effects such as diminished sexual function, which can lead to noncompliance with the medication due to its impact on quality of life. Choices A, B, and D are less likely to be associated with propranolol hydrochloride. While diarrhea, difficulty falling asleep, and feeling jittery are possible side effects of propranolol, they are not as commonly reported as diminished sexual function. Therefore, choice C is the most likely reason for the client's noncompliance.

Similar Questions