Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is planning an education session for an older adult client who has just learned that she has type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following strategies should the nurse plan to use with this client?

• A. Allow extra time for the client to respond to questions
• B. Expect the client to have difficulty understanding the information
• C. Avoid references to the client’s past experiences
• D. Keep the learning session private and one-on-one

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Choice A, allowing extra time for the client to respond to questions, is the appropriate strategy when educating an older adult with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Older adults may need additional time to process information and formulate responses. Choice B is incorrect as it assumes the client will have difficulty understanding the information, which may not be the case. Choice C is incorrect because referencing the client's past experiences can help personalize the education session. Choice D is also incorrect as keeping the learning session private and one-on-one may not be necessary for all clients and may limit the potential benefits of group education and support.

2. A client with a history of asthma is experiencing shortness of breath. What is the most appropriate action for the LPN/LVN to take first?

• A. Administer a bronchodilator as prescribed.
• B. Encourage the client to practice deep breathing exercises.
• C. Position the client in high Fowler's position.
• D. Obtain a peak flow reading.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering a bronchodilator as prescribed is the most appropriate initial action for managing asthma-related shortness of breath. Bronchodilators help to open up the airways quickly, providing relief for the client. Encouraging deep breathing exercises may be beneficial in some situations but should not be the first action for acute shortness of breath in asthma. Positioning the client in high Fowler's position can also help improve breathing, but administering the bronchodilator takes precedence. Obtaining a peak flow reading is important in asthma management, but it is not the initial action needed to address acute shortness of breath.

3. A client with a history of coronary artery disease is experiencing chest pain. What is the priority action for the nurse to take?

• A. Administer oxygen via a nasal cannula.
• B. Measure the client's vital signs.
• C. Obtain a 12-lead ECG.
• D. Encourage the client to use pursed-lip breathing.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen via a nasal cannula is the priority action for a client experiencing chest pain due to coronary artery disease. Oxygen therapy helps improve oxygenation, reduce myocardial workload, and relieve chest pain by increasing oxygen delivery to the heart muscle. While measuring vital signs, obtaining a 12-lead ECG, and encouraging pursed-lip breathing are important interventions, administering oxygen takes precedence in this situation to address the potential hypoxemia associated with chest pain in a client with a history of coronary artery disease.

4. A client with pneumonia is receiving antibiotic therapy. Which finding indicates that the treatment is effective?

• A. Decreased white blood cell count
• B. Decreased respiratory rate
• C. Increased breath sounds
• D. Increased heart rate

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Increased breath sounds. When a client with pneumonia is receiving antibiotic therapy, increased breath sounds indicate that the lungs are clearing and the pneumonia is resolving. This improvement in breath sounds suggests that the antibiotics are effectively treating the infection. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because a decreased white blood cell count, decreased respiratory rate, and increased heart rate are not specific indicators of the effectiveness of antibiotic therapy in treating pneumonia. While these parameters may change in response to treatment, they do not directly reflect the resolution of the pneumonia infection.

5. A female client with chronic back pain has been taking muscle relaxants and analgesics to manage the discomfort, but is now experiencing an acute episode of pain that is not relieved by this medication regime. The client tells the nurse that she does not want to have back surgery for a herniated intervertebral disk, and reports that she has found acupuncture effective in resolving past acute episodes. Which response is best for the nurse to provide?

• A. Surgery removes the disk and is the only treatment that can totally resolve the pain
• B. The medication regimen you previously used should be re-evaluated for dose adjustment
• C. Massage and hot pack treatments are less invasive and can provide temporary relief
• D. Acupuncture is a complementary therapy that is often effective for management of pain

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Acupuncture has been effective for the client previously, supporting continued use.

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