Nursing Elites

1. Three days following surgery, a male client observes his colostomy for the first time. He becomes quite upset and tells the LPN that it is much bigger than he expected. What is the best response by the nurse?

• A. Reassure the client that he will become accustomed to the stoma's appearance in time.
• B. Instruct the client that the stoma will become smaller when the initial swelling diminishes.
• C. Offer to contact a member of the local ostomy support group to help him with his concerns.
• D. Encourage the client to handle the stoma equipment to gain confidence with the procedure.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct response is to instruct the client that the stoma will become smaller when the initial swelling diminishes. This explanation helps reassure the client about the temporary appearance of the stoma. Choice A is incorrect because simply reassuring the client that he will become accustomed to the stoma's appearance does not address the immediate concern about the stoma size. Choice C is incorrect because offering to contact a support group does not directly address the client's current distress about the stoma size. Choice D is incorrect because encouraging the client to handle stoma equipment does not directly address the client's concern about the stoma size and may not be appropriate at this time.

2. A client with a history of seizures is prescribed phenytoin (Dilantin). What side effect should the healthcare provider report immediately?

• A. Increased appetite
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Nausea and vomiting
• D. Gingival hyperplasia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Gingival hyperplasia is a significant side effect associated with phenytoin therapy. It is characterized by an overgrowth of gum tissue, which can lead to issues such as difficulty in speaking, eating, and maintaining proper oral hygiene. This condition can progress rapidly and may require immediate intervention by the healthcare provider to prevent further complications. Increased appetite, dry mouth, and nausea/vomiting are common side effects of various medications, but they are not as urgent or serious as gingival hyperplasia in a client taking phenytoin.

3. The healthcare provider is planning care for a 14-year-old client returning from scoliosis corrective surgery. Which of the following actions should receive priority in the plan?

• A. Administer antibiotic therapy for 10 days
• B. Teach the client isometric exercises for legs
• C. Assess movement and sensation of extremities
• D. Assist the client to stand up at the bedside within the first 24 hours

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Assessing movement and sensation of extremities is the priority after scoliosis corrective surgery as it helps in early detection of any neurological deficits that may have occurred during the procedure. This assessment is essential for prompt intervention if any issues are identified. Administering antibiotics, teaching exercises, and assisting the client to stand up are important aspects of care but assessing neurological status takes precedence to ensure the client's safety and recovery.

4. A healthcare professional is assessing a patient's skin. Which patient is most at risk for impaired skin integrity?

• A. A patient who is afebrile
• B. A patient who is diaphoretic
• C. A patient with strong pedal pulses
• D. A patient with adequate skin turgor

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Excessive moisture on the skin, as seen in a diaphoretic patient, can lead to impaired skin integrity. Diaphoresis softens epidermal cells, promotes bacterial growth, and can cause skin maceration. Afebrile status, strong pedal pulses, and adequate skin turgor are not directly associated with an increased risk of impaired skin integrity. Afebrile indicates the absence of fever, not a risk to skin integrity. Strong pedal pulses suggest good circulation, which is beneficial for skin health. Adequate skin turgor is a sign of good hydration and skin elasticity, indicating a lower risk of impaired skin integrity.

5. A nurse in a surgical suite notes documentation on a client's medical record stating that he has a latex allergy. In preparation for the client's procedure, which of the following precautions should the nurse take?

• A. Ensure sterilization of non-disposable items with ethylene oxide
• B. Wrap monitoring cords with stockinette and secure them with non-latex tape
• C. Cleanse latex ports on IV tubing with chlorhexidine before administering medication
• D. Wear hypoallergenic latex gloves that are powder-free

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should take precautions to prevent latex exposure to the client due to his latex allergy. Wrapping monitoring cords with stockinette and securing them with non-latex tape helps to minimize the risk of latex contact with the client. Choice A is incorrect as sterilizing non-disposable items with ethylene oxide does not specifically address the avoidance of latex exposure. Choice C involves using latex ports on IV tubing, which can pose a risk of allergic reaction in a client with a latex allergy. Choice D suggests wearing latex gloves, even if hypoallergenic, which can still trigger a reaction in individuals with latex allergy. Therefore, the best option is to choose non-latex materials like stockinette and non-latex tape to prevent direct contact with latex.

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