Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is educating a client about caloric intake and weight reduction. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. If I eat 500 fewer calories per day, I should lose 1 pound per week.
• B. If I eat 450 fewer calories per day, I should lose 2 pounds per week.
• C. If I eat 250 fewer calories per day, I should lose 2 pounds per week.
• D. If I eat 300 fewer calories per day, I should lose 1 pound per week.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'If I eat 500 fewer calories per day, I should lose 1 pound per week.' This statement is accurate because a reduction of 500 calories per day typically results in a weight loss of 1 pound per week. This is based on the principle that a calorie deficit of 3,500 calories equals about 1 pound of body fat. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the established relationship between calorie reduction and weight loss. Eating 450 fewer calories per day would not lead to a weight loss of 2 pounds per week; similarly, reducing calories by 250 or 300 per day would not result in losing 2 pounds or 1 pound per week, respectively.

2. Which of the following would increase a client's risk of ovarian cancer?

• A. History of fibroids
• B. Early menopause
• C. Endometriosis
• D. Polycystic ovary syndrome

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Endometriosis. Endometriosis is associated with an increased risk of developing ovarian cancer due to chronic inflammation and hormonal imbalances. The exact cause is not fully understood, but women with endometriosis should be monitored closely. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they are not directly linked to an increased risk of ovarian cancer. Fibroids, early menopause, and polycystic ovary syndrome do not have a known direct correlation with ovarian cancer risk.

3. A nurse is caring for a client in preterm labor who is receiving magnesium sulfate. Which of the following is an indication of magnesium toxicity?

• A. Blood glucose of 160 mg/dL
• B. Urine output of 20 mL/hour
• C. Systolic BP of 140 mm Hg
• D. Respiratory rate of 20/min

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Urine output of 20 mL/hour. Urine output below 30 mL/hour is a sign of magnesium toxicity due to the risk of accumulation in the body. Choices A, C, and D are not indicative of magnesium toxicity. Elevated blood glucose, systolic blood pressure, and normal respiratory rate are not specific signs of magnesium toxicity.

4. A client who is 2 hours postpartum reports heavy bleeding and passing large clots. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Perform fundal massage
• B. Administer oxytocin IV
• C. Check vital signs
• D. Encourage the client to void

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Perform fundal massage. Fundal massage promotes uterine contractions, which is the initial action to reduce postpartum hemorrhage caused by uterine atony. Checking vital signs (choice C) is important but not the priority when active bleeding is present. Administering oxytocin IV (choice B) may be needed but is not the priority action. Encouraging the client to void (choice D) does not address the underlying issue of postpartum hemorrhage and should not be the priority.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has an indwelling urinary catheter. What should the nurse identify as a sign of catheter occlusion?

• A. Bladder distention
• B. Frequent urination
• C. Dark urine
• D. Increased thirst

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Bladder distention is the correct sign of catheter occlusion. When a catheter is occluded, the urine cannot drain properly, leading to the buildup of urine in the bladder and subsequent distention. Frequent urination, dark urine, and increased thirst are not typical signs of catheter occlusion. Frequent urination can be a sign of conditions like urinary tract infection, dark urine may indicate dehydration or other issues, and increased thirst can be related to various factors like diabetes or medication side effects.

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