ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment B Quizlet
1. A nurse is educating a client about caloric intake and weight reduction. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. If I eat 500 fewer calories per day, I should lose 1 pound per week.
- B. If I eat 450 fewer calories per day, I should lose 2 pounds per week.
- C. If I eat 250 fewer calories per day, I should lose 2 pounds per week.
- D. If I eat 300 fewer calories per day, I should lose 1 pound per week.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'If I eat 500 fewer calories per day, I should lose 1 pound per week.' This statement is accurate because a reduction of 500 calories per day typically results in a weight loss of 1 pound per week. This is based on the principle that a calorie deficit of 3,500 calories equals about 1 pound of body fat. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the established relationship between calorie reduction and weight loss. Eating 450 fewer calories per day would not lead to a weight loss of 2 pounds per week; similarly, reducing calories by 250 or 300 per day would not result in losing 2 pounds or 1 pound per week, respectively.
2. A nurse is reviewing a laboratory report for a client who is at 33 weeks of gestation and has preeclampsia. Which of the following laboratory results should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. BUN 35 mg/dL
- B. Hgb 15 g/dL
- C. Bilirubin 0.6 mg/dL
- D. Hct 37%
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A BUN of 35 mg/dL indicates potential kidney impairment, which is a concern in preeclampsia due to compromised renal function. This finding warrants further evaluation by the provider. High BUN levels may suggest reduced kidney function, a common complication associated with preeclampsia. Hgb, Bilirubin, and Hct levels are within normal ranges and are not directly indicative of kidney impairment or preeclampsia in this scenario. Therefore, the nurse should report the elevated BUN level to the healthcare provider for prompt management and monitoring.
3. A healthcare professional is assessing a client for signs of respiratory distress. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional look for?
- A. Shallow breathing
- B. Bradycardia
- C. Increased appetite
- D. Warm, dry skin
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Question: A healthcare professional is assessing a client for signs of respiratory distress. Shallow breathing is a key indicator of respiratory distress, reflecting an inadequate exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide. Bradycardia (Choice B) refers to a slow heart rate and is not typically a direct sign of respiratory distress. Increased appetite (Choice C) and warm, dry skin (Choice D) are unrelated to respiratory distress. Therefore, the correct answer is A.
4. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has chronic kidney failure and an AV fistula for hemodialysis with a new prescription for epoetin alfa. Which of the following therapeutic effects of epoetin alfa should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Reduces blood pressure
- B. Inhibits clotting of fistula
- C. Promotes RBC production
- D. Stimulates growth of neutrophils
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Promotes RBC production. Epoetin alfa stimulates red blood cell production, which is important for clients with chronic kidney disease who may have anemia due to decreased erythropoietin production by the kidneys. Options A, B, and D are incorrect: epoetin alfa does not directly reduce blood pressure, inhibit clotting of the fistula, or stimulate growth of neutrophils.
5. A client has been diagnosed with tuberculosis. Which of the following precautions should the nurse initiate to prevent transmission of the disease?
- A. Contact precautions
- B. Airborne precautions
- C. Droplet precautions
- D. Protective environment
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Tuberculosis is spread through small droplets, measuring less than 5 microns, which can remain airborne for extended periods. The nurse should place a client with TB under airborne precautions to prevent the transmission of the disease. Choice A, contact precautions, are used for diseases that spread by direct or indirect contact. Choice C, droplet precautions, are for diseases transmitted by large droplets. Choice D, protective environment, is used for clients who have compromised immune systems.
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