a nurse is assessing a client with a history of heart disease which of the following findings should the nurse monitor
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 B with NGN

1. A healthcare professional is assessing a client with a history of heart disease. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional monitor?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Monitoring blood pressure, weight, and heart rhythm is crucial in clients with a history of heart disease as these parameters can indicate changes in the cardiovascular status. Changes in blood pressure can signify heart strain, weight fluctuations can be related to fluid retention or heart failure, and irregular heart rhythm can indicate arrhythmias or other cardiac issues. Monitoring all these parameters comprehensively allows for early detection of potential complications and timely intervention. Therefore, selecting 'All of the above' is the correct choice as it encompasses all the essential parameters for monitoring in clients with heart disease. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as monitoring only one or two of these parameters may lead to missing important changes in the client's condition.

2. Four clients present to the emergency department. The nurse should plan to see which of the following clients first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. The client with slurred speech and a headache may be experiencing a stroke, which is a medical emergency that requires immediate attention to prevent irreversible brain damage. While each client requires prompt assessment and care, the priority is to address potentially life-threatening conditions first. Choices A, B, and C, although important, do not present with symptoms as critical as those of a possible stroke, which necessitates urgent intervention.

3. A nurse in an outpatient facility is assessing a client who is prescribed furosemide 40 mg daily, but the client reports she has been taking extra doses to promote weight loss. Which of the following findings indicates she is dehydrated?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A urine specific gravity greater than 1.030 is indicative of dehydration as it reflects concentrated urine. Choice A is incorrect as a specific gravity of 1.020 is within the normal range. Choice C, decreased skin turgor, can be a sign of dehydration but is not as specific as urine specific gravity. Choice D, decreased heart rate, is not typically a direct indicator of dehydration.

4. A client with multiple sclerosis reports diplopia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when caring for a client with multiple sclerosis reporting diplopia is to recommend alternating eye patches during the day. This strategy can help relieve diplopia (double vision) by allowing each eye to rest alternately, reducing eye strain. Encouraging the client to focus on a distant object (Choice A) is not an appropriate intervention for diplopia in this case. Applying a warm compress to the client's eyes (Choice B) and administering artificial tears (Choice D) are not effective interventions for diplopia associated with multiple sclerosis.

5. A nurse is preparing to administer 2.5 mL of medication intramuscularly to an adult client. Which site is safest for the nurse to use?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Ventrogluteal.' The ventrogluteal site is recommended for intramuscular injections in adults because it is free of major blood vessels and nerves, reducing the risk of injury or complications. Choice B, 'Dorsogluteal,' is not recommended due to the proximity of the sciatic nerve and major blood vessels. Choices C and D, 'Vastus lateralis' and 'Rectus femoris,' are sites commonly used for intramuscular injections but are more suitable for pediatric or specific population groups, not typically for adults.

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