a nurse is caring for a client with a history of asthma which of the following should the nurse monitor
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 B

1. A client with a history of asthma is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Respiratory status. When caring for a client with asthma, it is essential to monitor their respiratory status to detect any changes in breathing or signs of airway obstruction. Monitoring heart rate (choice A) may be important in some situations but is not the priority when managing asthma. Blood glucose levels (choice C) and liver function (choice D) are not directly related to asthma and would not be the primary focus of monitoring for a client with this condition.

2. A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client following a below-the-knee amputation. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to avoid sitting in a chair for prolonged periods. This is important to prevent contractures from developing in the residual limb. Sleeping with a pillow under the residual limb can contribute to contracture formation rather than prevent it. While elevation of the limb is important for reducing swelling and promoting circulation, continuous elevation for 48 hours is not necessary and may not be practical. Applying lotion to the residual limb daily is generally not recommended immediately post-amputation as the wound site needs to heal without interference from lotions or creams.

3. A client with a new diagnosis of heart failure is prescribed furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to increase their intake of potassium-rich foods. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to potassium loss, which may cause hypokalemia. Increasing potassium intake can help prevent this electrolyte imbalance. Choice A is incorrect because furosemide is usually taken in the morning to prevent sleep disturbances due to increased urination. Choice C is incorrect because a decrease in urine output could indicate a problem and should be reported immediately. Choice D is incorrect because furosemide is used to reduce swelling in the body, including the lower extremities, so expecting swelling is not appropriate.

4. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a newborn who is 24 hours old. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bilirubin 4 mg/dL. A bilirubin level of 4 mg/dL is elevated for a newborn and requires monitoring and potential intervention to prevent complications such as jaundice and kernicterus. Elevated bilirubin levels in newborns can lead to serious neurological consequences. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges for a newborn and do not require immediate reporting to the provider. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize reporting the elevated bilirubin level to the provider for further evaluation and management.

5. A nurse is reviewing information about advance directives with a newly admitted client. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Choice B is the correct answer because having a living will is a legal document that outlines a client's wishes when they are unable to make decisions, indicating a good understanding of advance directives. Choice A is incorrect because it doesn't mention a specific document like a living will. Choice C is incorrect because advance directives, like a living will, can be legally binding. Choice D is incorrect because planning for advance directives should ideally be done before a person becomes critically ill.

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