Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of asthma is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?

• A. Heart rate
• B. Respiratory status
• C. Blood glucose levels
• D. Liver function

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Respiratory status. When caring for a client with asthma, it is essential to monitor their respiratory status to detect any changes in breathing or signs of airway obstruction. Monitoring heart rate (choice A) may be important in some situations but is not the priority when managing asthma. Blood glucose levels (choice C) and liver function (choice D) are not directly related to asthma and would not be the primary focus of monitoring for a client with this condition.

2. A laboring client received meperidine IV one hour prior to delivery. Which of the following medications should the nurse have available to counteract the effects of this medication on the newborn?

• A. Naloxone
• B. Epinephrine
• C. Atropine
• D. Diazepam

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Meperidine is an opioid analgesic that can cross the placenta and cause respiratory depression in the newborn. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that is administered to reverse the effects of opioids. It is critical to have Naloxone available when opioids are administered during labor, especially close to delivery. Epinephrine is not used to counteract the effects of opioids but rather for managing severe allergic reactions or cardiac arrest. Atropine is used for specific conditions like bradycardia, not to counteract opioid effects. Diazepam is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety, seizures, and muscle spasms, not for reversing opioid effects.

3. A healthcare provider is caring for a client with severe preeclampsia. Which of the following medications should the healthcare provider anticipate administering?

• A. Magnesium sulfate
• B. Oxytocin
• C. Misoprostol
• D. Nifedipine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Magnesium sulfate is the correct answer as it is administered to prevent seizures in clients with severe preeclampsia. It acts as a central nervous system depressant and is the first-line treatment for eclampsia prevention. Oxytocin (Choice B) is used to induce or augment labor, not indicated specifically for preeclampsia. Misoprostol (Choice C) is used for labor induction and postpartum hemorrhage, not typically indicated for preeclampsia. Nifedipine (Choice D) is a calcium channel blocker used for managing hypertension in pregnancy but is not the first-line treatment for preventing seizures in severe preeclampsia.

4. A charge nurse is discussing HIPAA with a newly licensed nurse. Which action should the charge nurse include in the teaching as an example of a HIPAA violation?

• A. Faxing a patient’s discharge summary to the pharmacy.
• B. Emailing the patient’s positive hepatitis results from an unencrypted server.
• C. Discussing the patient’s care plan during bedside rounds.
• D. Placing the patient’s chart in a secure location at the nurse’s station.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Emailing patient information from an unencrypted server violates HIPAA because it exposes sensitive health information to potential breaches. Choice A is not a violation as long as the fax is sent to the correct recipient. Choice C is not a violation if the discussion is done discreetly and within an appropriate setting. Choice D is a recommended practice to ensure patient information is kept secure.

5. A healthcare professional is reviewing the health history of an older adult who has a hip fracture. What is a risk factor for developing pressure injuries?

• A. Dehydration
• B. Urinary incontinence
• C. Poor nutrition
• D. Poor tissue perfusion

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Urinary incontinence is a risk factor for developing pressure injuries due to prolonged skin exposure to moisture and irritants. Dehydration (choice A) can contribute to skin dryness but is not a direct risk factor for pressure injuries. Poor nutrition (choice C) can affect wound healing but is not specifically linked to pressure injuries. Poor tissue perfusion (choice D) can increase the risk of tissue damage but is not as directly associated with pressure injuries as urinary incontinence.

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