ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 B
1. A client with a history of asthma is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?
- A. Heart rate
- B. Respiratory status
- C. Blood glucose levels
- D. Liver function
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Respiratory status. When caring for a client with asthma, it is essential to monitor their respiratory status to detect any changes in breathing or signs of airway obstruction. Monitoring heart rate (choice A) may be important in some situations but is not the priority when managing asthma. Blood glucose levels (choice C) and liver function (choice D) are not directly related to asthma and would not be the primary focus of monitoring for a client with this condition.
2. A nurse is performing a focused assessment for a client who has dysrhythmias. What indicates ineffective cardiac contractions?
- A. Increased blood pressure
- B. Pulse deficit
- C. Normal heart rate
- D. Elevated oxygen saturation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pulse deficit. A pulse deficit is a significant finding in clients with dysrhythmias, indicating ineffective cardiac contractions. Pulse deficit occurs when there is a difference between the apical and radial pulses, suggesting that not all heart contractions are strong enough to produce a pulse that can be felt peripherally. Increased blood pressure (choice A) may occur due to various factors and is not a direct indicator of ineffective cardiac contractions. Similarly, a normal heart rate (choice C) and elevated oxygen saturation (choice D) do not specifically point towards ineffective cardiac contractions; they can be present in individuals with dysrhythmias but do not directly indicate ineffective cardiac contractions.
3. A client with ulcerative colitis has a new prescription for sulfasalazine. What adverse effect should the client monitor for according to the nurse?
- A. Jaundice
- B. Constipation
- C. Oral candidiasis
- D. Sedation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Jaundice. Sulfasalazine can lead to liver toxicity, making it essential to monitor for jaundice, a sign of liver dysfunction. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because constipation, oral candidiasis, and sedation are not commonly associated with sulfasalazine use.
4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer 250 mg of an antibiotic IM. Available is 3 g/5 mL. How many mL would the healthcare professional administer per dose?
- A. 0.4 mL
- B. 0.3 mL
- C. 0.5 mL
- D. 0.6 mL
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the mL to be administered, convert 250 mg to grams (0.25 g). Then, set up a proportion: (0.25 g / 3 g) x 5 mL = 0.4167 mL, which rounds to 0.4 mL. Therefore, the healthcare professional would administer 0.4 mL per dose. Choice B (0.3 mL) is incorrect because it does not reflect the accurate calculation. Choice C (0.5 mL) is incorrect as it does not consider the correct conversion and calculation. Choice D (0.6 mL) is incorrect as it provides a value higher than the accurate calculation.
5. A nurse is assessing a client with pancreatitis. Which of the following findings should the nurse look for?
- A. Increased appetite
- B. Abdominal pain
- C. Weight gain
- D. Elevated blood pressure
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Abdominal pain. Abdominal pain, often severe, is a hallmark sign of pancreatitis. Other common symptoms include nausea, vomiting, and tenderness in the abdomen. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because increased appetite, weight gain, and elevated blood pressure are not typically associated with pancreatitis. Therefore, the nurse should primarily focus on assessing for abdominal pain in a client with suspected pancreatitis.
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