ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 B
1. A client with a history of asthma is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?
- A. Heart rate
- B. Respiratory status
- C. Blood glucose levels
- D. Liver function
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Respiratory status. When caring for a client with asthma, it is essential to monitor their respiratory status to detect any changes in breathing or signs of airway obstruction. Monitoring heart rate (choice A) may be important in some situations but is not the priority when managing asthma. Blood glucose levels (choice C) and liver function (choice D) are not directly related to asthma and would not be the primary focus of monitoring for a client with this condition.
2. A nurse has provided education to a client regarding prescribed levothyroxine sodium. Which of the following client statements demonstrates understanding of medication administration?
- A. I should take the medication in the morning to prevent insomnia.
- B. I can take the medication at night before bed.
- C. I will stop the medication if I start to feel better.
- D. I will take the medication only when I feel symptoms.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Levothyroxine should be taken in the morning on an empty stomach to prevent insomnia and ensure proper absorption of the medication. Choice B is incorrect because taking levothyroxine at night may interfere with sleep and absorption. Choice C is incorrect as stopping the medication without consulting the healthcare provider can lead to negative health outcomes. Choice D is incorrect because levothyroxine is a daily medication that should be taken consistently, not just when symptoms are present.
3. A nurse is caring for a client with encephalopathy secondary to liver failure. The client has been prescribed a high-calorie, low-protein diet. Which of the following meal selections is appropriate for this client?
- A. Scrambled eggs, bacon, and pancakes
- B. Grilled cheese sandwich, potato chips, chocolate pudding
- C. Steak, French fries, corn
- D. Chicken breast, mashed potatoes, spinach
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Chicken breast provides a low-fat protein source, and mashed potatoes and spinach provide high-calorie nutrients suitable for managing liver failure. Option A (Scrambled eggs, bacon, and pancakes) is high in protein, which is not suitable for a low-protein diet. Option B (Grilled cheese sandwich, potato chips, chocolate pudding) contains high protein and may not be appropriate for the client. Option C (Steak, French fries, corn) is high in protein and fat, which are not recommended for this client's dietary requirements.
4. To reduce the incidence of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS), how should the parents position the newborn?
- A. Prone position
- B. Supine position
- C. Side-lying position
- D. Semi-Fowler's position
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Supine position. Placing the newborn on their back (supine position) is the safest sleeping position to reduce the risk of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS). This position helps prevent airway obstruction, which can occur when infants are placed on their stomach (prone position), side (side-lying position), or in a semi-upright position (semi-Fowler's position). The prone position (choice A) is associated with an increased risk of SIDS, making it an unsafe choice. Side-lying position (choice C) and semi-Fowler's position (choice D) also pose risks of airway compromise and are not recommended for sleep positioning to prevent SIDS. Therefore, options A, C, and D are incorrect in this context.
5. A client receiving opiates for pain management was initially sedated but is no longer sedated after three days. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Initiate additional non-pharmacological pain management techniques.
- B. Notify the provider that a dosage adjustment is needed.
- C. No action is needed at this time.
- D. Contact the provider to request an alternate method of pain management.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: No action is needed at this time. Sedation from opiates commonly decreases as the body adjusts to the medication. It is a positive sign that the sedation has resolved, indicating the client is tolerating the current dosage well. Initiating additional non-pharmacological pain management techniques (Choice A) is unnecessary since the current pain management regimen is effective. Notifying the provider for a dosage adjustment (Choice B) is premature and not indicated when the sedation has resolved. Contacting the provider to request an alternate method of pain management (Choice D) is excessive and not warranted in this situation where the client is no longer sedated and the current pain management plan is effective.
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