a nurse is caring for a client with a history of asthma which of the following should the nurse monitor
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 B

1. A client with a history of asthma is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Respiratory status. When caring for a client with asthma, it is essential to monitor their respiratory status to detect any changes in breathing or signs of airway obstruction. Monitoring heart rate (choice A) may be important in some situations but is not the priority when managing asthma. Blood glucose levels (choice C) and liver function (choice D) are not directly related to asthma and would not be the primary focus of monitoring for a client with this condition.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving oxytocin IV for augmentation of labor. The client’s contractions are occurring every 45 seconds with a duration of 90 seconds, and the fetal heart rate is 170-180/minute. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the contractions are too frequent (tachysystole), and the fetal heart rate is elevated. Tachysystole can lead to decreased oxygen perfusion to the fetus, causing fetal distress. Therefore, the correct action for the nurse to take is to discontinue the oxytocin infusion to prevent harm to both the mother and fetus. Increasing or maintaining the oxytocin infusion would exacerbate the current situation, potentially leading to further complications. Decreasing the oxytocin infusion may not be sufficient to address the tachysystole and elevated fetal heart rate, making it an inappropriate choice.

3. A client has been prescribed amlodipine for hypertension. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to report?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Dizziness.' Amlodipine, a calcium channel blocker used for hypertension, can cause dizziness due to its blood pressure-lowering effects. It is crucial for clients to report dizziness to their healthcare provider as it may indicate hypotension. Dry cough (choice A) is more commonly associated with ACE inhibitors, rash (choice C) may be seen in allergic reactions, and headache (choice D) is a less common side effect of amlodipine.

4. A nurse is updating a plan of care after evaluating a client who has dysphagia. Which interventions should the nurse include in the plan?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with dysphagia is to have them sit upright for 1 hour following meals. This position facilitates swallowing and reduces the risk of aspiration. Choice A is incorrect because having the client lie down after meals can increase the risk of aspiration. Choice B is incorrect as talking while eating can lead to choking. Choice D is incorrect as thin liquids may be harder for a client with dysphagia to swallow safely.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who is in active labor. The nurse notes early decelerations in the FHR on the fetal monitor tracing. The nurse should identify that which of the following conditions causes early decelerations in the FHR?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Early decelerations are caused by head compression during contractions, which is a normal response as the fetal head is being compressed during uterine contractions. This usually indicates that the fetus is descending into the birth canal. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Fetal hypoxemia, cord compression, and uteroplacental insufficiency typically present with variable or late decelerations on the fetal heart rate tracing, not early decelerations.

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