ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 B
1. A client with a history of asthma is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?
- A. Heart rate
- B. Respiratory status
- C. Blood glucose levels
- D. Liver function
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Respiratory status. When caring for a client with asthma, it is essential to monitor their respiratory status to detect any changes in breathing or signs of airway obstruction. Monitoring heart rate (choice A) may be important in some situations but is not the priority when managing asthma. Blood glucose levels (choice C) and liver function (choice D) are not directly related to asthma and would not be the primary focus of monitoring for a client with this condition.
2. Using Naegele's Rule, what is the estimated delivery date for a pregnant client whose last menstrual period was on May 4th, 2013?
- A. January 15, 2014
- B. February 11, 2014
- C. March 3, 2014
- D. December 25, 2013
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Naegele's rule is a standard method for calculating the estimated delivery date (EDD). It involves subtracting three months from the first day of the last menstrual period (LMP), adding seven days, and then adding one year. For a client with an LMP of May 4th, 2013, subtracting three months gives February 4th. Adding seven days results in a due date of February 11th, 2014, which is the correct answer. Choice A (January 15, 2014) is incorrect as it does not account for the full calculation. Choice C (March 3, 2014) is incorrect as it adds too many days in the calculation. Choice D (December 25, 2013) is incorrect as it does not follow the correct steps of Naegele's rule.
3. A nurse is reviewing the medication class, benzodiazepines. The nurse would use caution when administering benzodiazepines to which of the clients below?
- A. A client with glaucoma
- B. A client with renal failure
- C. A client with hypertension
- D. A client with insomnia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Benzodiazepines can increase intraocular pressure, which is why they must be used cautiously in patients with glaucoma. In clients with this condition, benzodiazepines can potentially worsen symptoms and lead to further complications involving the eyes. Therefore, administering benzodiazepines to a client with glaucoma should be done with caution. Choices B, C, and D are not directly contraindicated with benzodiazepines, making them less likely to cause harm compared to administering to a client with glaucoma.
4. A client is being taught how to use a PCA pump postoperatively. Which statement indicates understanding?
- A. I should wait until the pain is severe before using the PCA pump.
- B. My family can press the button for me when I'm asleep.
- C. I will press the button when I start to feel pain.
- D. I will only press the button once per hour.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because the client should press the PCA pump button when they start to feel pain. This approach helps maintain pain control effectively. Choice A is incorrect because waiting for the pain to become severe before using the PCA pump can lead to inadequate pain management. Choice B is incorrect because only the client should operate the PCA pump to ensure the correct dosage is administered. Choice D is incorrect because the client should press the button as needed when experiencing pain, rather than limiting its use to once per hour.
5. A client has been prescribed ferrous sulfate. Which instruction should the nurse include?
- A. Take with meals
- B. Take with a glass of orange juice
- C. Take at bedtime
- D. Take with milk
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed ferrous sulfate is to take it with a glass of orange juice. Vitamin C, found in orange juice, enhances the absorption of iron, making it more effective. Taking ferrous sulfate with meals, at bedtime, or with milk can decrease its absorption and effectiveness, so these options are incorrect.
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