Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of asthma is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?

• A. Heart rate
• B. Respiratory status
• C. Blood glucose levels
• D. Liver function

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Respiratory status. When caring for a client with asthma, it is essential to monitor their respiratory status to detect any changes in breathing or signs of airway obstruction. Monitoring heart rate (choice A) may be important in some situations but is not the priority when managing asthma. Blood glucose levels (choice C) and liver function (choice D) are not directly related to asthma and would not be the primary focus of monitoring for a client with this condition.

2. A nurse is preparing to administer a measles, mumps, rubella (MMR) immunization to a child. Which is a contraindication for this vaccine?

• A. Recent blood transfusion
• B. Allergy to penicillin
• C. Minor acute illness
• D. Low-grade fever

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Recent blood transfusion. A recent blood transfusion can interfere with the effectiveness of the MMR vaccine, making it a contraindication. Choice B, allergy to penicillin, is not a contraindication for the MMR vaccine. Choice C, minor acute illness, is not a contraindication unless the child has a moderate to severe illness. Choice D, low-grade fever, is not a contraindication as long as the child does not have a moderate to severe febrile illness.

3. A nurse is monitoring a client who has been receiving intermittent enteral feedings. What should the nurse identify as an intolerance to the feeding?

• A. Increased appetite
• B. Nausea
• C. Weight gain
• D. Regular bowel movements

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nausea is a common sign of intolerance to enteral feedings. When a client experiences nausea, it can indicate difficulty in tolerating the feeding formula. This intolerance may also manifest as vomiting and dumping syndrome. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because increased appetite, weight gain, and regular bowel movements are not typical signs of intolerance to enteral feedings.

4. During a skin assessment on a client with risk factors for skin cancer, a nurse should understand that a suspicious lesion is:

• A. Scaly and red
• B. Asymmetric with variegated coloring
• C. Firm and rubbery
• D. Brown with a wart-like texture

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Asymmetric with variegated coloring. An asymmetric lesion with variegated coloring, meaning different shades of color within the same lesion, is characteristic of melanoma, a type of skin cancer. This type of lesion should raise suspicions and prompt further evaluation. Choices A, C, and D do not typically represent characteristics of suspicious skin lesions associated with skin cancer. Lesions that are scaly and red (Choice A) may indicate other skin conditions like eczema or psoriasis. Firm and rubbery lesions (Choice C) are more suggestive of benign skin growths like dermatofibromas. Lesions that are brown with a wart-like texture (Choice D) are often indicative of seborrheic keratosis, a benign growth, rather than a suspicious lesion related to skin cancer.

5. A nurse is caring for a client with celiac disease. Which food should be removed from the meal tray?

• A. Cornbread
• B. Mashed potatoes
• C. Lentils
• D. Tortillas

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Tortillas. Clients with celiac disease should avoid gluten, which is often found in tortillas. Cornbread, mashed potatoes, and lentils are gluten-free options, making them safe for individuals with celiac disease. Therefore, the other choices (A, B, and C) do not need to be removed from the meal tray.

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