Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of asthma is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?

• A. Heart rate
• B. Respiratory status
• C. Blood glucose levels
• D. Liver function

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Respiratory status. When caring for a client with asthma, it is essential to monitor their respiratory status to detect any changes in breathing or signs of airway obstruction. Monitoring heart rate (choice A) may be important in some situations but is not the priority when managing asthma. Blood glucose levels (choice C) and liver function (choice D) are not directly related to asthma and would not be the primary focus of monitoring for a client with this condition.

2. A nurse is caring for a client with end-stage osteoporosis who is experiencing severe pain and a respiratory rate of 14/min. Which medication should the nurse prioritize?

• A. Promethazine
• B. Hydromorphone
• C. Ketorolac
• D. Amitriptyline

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this situation, the nurse should prioritize administering Hydromorphone (choice B), an opioid analgesic, to manage the severe pain effectively. Opioids are the first-line treatment for severe pain, especially in end-stage conditions like osteoporosis. Promethazine (choice A) is an antihistamine and antiemetic, not a potent analgesic. Ketorolac (choice C) is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that may not provide sufficient pain relief in severe cases. Amitriptyline (choice D) is a tricyclic antidepressant used for neuropathic pain and depression, but it is not the first choice for managing severe pain in this scenario.

3. A client has been prescribed amlodipine for hypertension. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to report?

• A. Dry cough
• B. Dizziness
• C. Rash
• D. Headache

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Dizziness.' Amlodipine, a calcium channel blocker used for hypertension, can cause dizziness due to its blood pressure-lowering effects. It is crucial for clients to report dizziness to their healthcare provider as it may indicate hypotension. Dry cough (choice A) is more commonly associated with ACE inhibitors, rash (choice C) may be seen in allergic reactions, and headache (choice D) is a less common side effect of amlodipine.

4. A nurse is caring for a client at 32 weeks gestation with a history of cardiac disease. Which position should the nurse recommend to promote optimal cardiac output?

• A. The chest
• B. Standing
• C. Supine
• D. Left lateral

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The left lateral position is the correct choice to promote optimal cardiac output in a pregnant client at 32 weeks gestation with cardiac disease. This position improves venous return and decreases pressure on the vena cava, helping optimize cardiac output. Standing (choice B) would not be recommended as it may decrease venous return. The supine position (choice C) should be avoided in pregnant clients with cardiac disease as it can compress the vena cava, reducing cardiac output and potentially causing hypotension. The chest (choice A) is not a valid position recommendation for optimizing cardiac output in this scenario.

5. A nurse is assessing a male adolescent client who has heart failure. Based on the client’s chart, which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?

• A. Withhold spironolactone
• B. Administer ferrous sulfate
• C. Administer furosemide
• D. Withhold digoxin

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer furosemide. Furosemide is a diuretic commonly used in heart failure to manage fluid retention, helping alleviate symptoms like edema and shortness of breath. Withholding spironolactone, a potassium-sparing diuretic, could lead to electrolyte imbalances. Administering ferrous sulfate is used to treat iron deficiency anemia, not heart failure. Withholding digoxin, a medication used in heart failure to improve heart function, can worsen the client's condition.

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