Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is discussing the care of an infant with colic with the parents. What should the healthcare provider explain is the cause of colicky behavior?

• A. Inadequate peristalsis
• B. Paroxysmal abdominal pain
• C. An allergic response to certain proteins in milk
• D. A protective mechanism designed to eliminate foreign proteins

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Colicky behavior in infants is primarily characterized by paroxysmal abdominal pain, resulting in excessive crying and fussiness. The pain episodes are often unpredictable and can be distressing for both the infant and the parents. Inadequate peristalsis (Choice A) refers to weak or ineffective bowel movements and is not the typical cause of colic. While some infants may experience colic due to an allergic response to certain proteins in milk (Choice C), this is not the primary cause of colic behavior in all infants. Choice D, a protective mechanism designed to eliminate foreign proteins, is not a recognized cause of colic. Therefore, the correct explanation for the cause of colicky behavior in infants is paroxysmal abdominal pain.

2. What should be included in the teaching plan for parents of an infant diagnosed with phenylketonuria (PKU)?

• A. Mental retardation occurs if PKU is untreated.
• B. Testing for PKU is done immediately after birth.
• C. Treatment for PKU includes lifelong dietary management.
• D. PKU is transmitted as an autosomal recessive trait.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Mental retardation occurs if PKU is untreated.' Phenylketonuria (PKU) is a metabolic disorder that results in the inability to metabolize phenylalanine properly. Without proper dietary management, high levels of phenylalanine can lead to severe mental retardation and other neurological problems. Therefore, educating parents about the importance of early and consistent treatment to prevent mental retardation is crucial. Choice B is incorrect because testing for PKU is typically done shortly after birth, not immediately. Choice C is incorrect because treatment for PKU primarily involves strict dietary management to control phenylalanine intake, not lifelong medications. Choice D is incorrect because PKU is inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern, not as an autosomal dominant gene.

3. A child has undergone surgery using steel bar placement to correct pectus excavatum. What position would the nurse instruct the parents to avoid?

• A. Semi-Fowler
• B. Supine
• C. High Fowler
• D. Side-lying

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Side-lying. After surgery using steel bar placement to correct pectus excavatum, the nurse should instruct the parents to avoid placing the child in a side-lying position. This position should be avoided to prevent displacement of the steel bar. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Semi-Fowler, Supine, and High Fowler positions are generally safe and commonly used in postoperative care, but in this specific case, side-lying should be avoided to ensure the effectiveness of the surgical correction.

4. You are managing a 10-month-old infant who has had severe diarrhea and vomiting for 3 days and is now showing signs of shock. You have initiated supplemental oxygen therapy and elevated the lower extremities. En route to the hospital, you note that the child's work of breathing has increased. What must you do first?

• A. Lower the extremities and reassess the child
• B. Begin positive pressure ventilations and reassess the child
• C. Place a nasopharyngeal airway and increase the oxygen flow
• D. Listen to the lungs with a stethoscope for abnormal breath sounds

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the infant is showing signs of shock with increased work of breathing. Lowering the extremities helps improve venous return to the heart, cardiac output, and oxygenation by reducing the pressure on the diaphragm. This action can alleviate the respiratory distress and is a critical step to take in a child with signs of shock. Beginning positive pressure ventilations (Choice B) should be considered if the infant's respiratory distress worsens despite lowering the extremities. Placing a nasopharyngeal airway and increasing oxygen flow (Choice C) may not directly address the increased work of breathing or the underlying shock condition. Listening to the lungs with a stethoscope (Choice D) may provide information on lung sounds but does not address the immediate need to improve breathing in a child with signs of shock.

5. During a clinical conference with a group of nursing students, the instructor is describing burn classifications. The instructor determines that the teaching has been successful when the group identifies what as characteristic of full-thickness burns?

• A. Skin that is reddened, dry, and slightly swollen
• B. Skin appearing wet with significant pain
• C. Skin with blistering and swelling
• D. Skin that is leathery and dry with some numbness

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Full-thickness burns, also known as third-degree burns, are characterized by a leathery, dry appearance with numbness due to nerve damage. This type of burn extends through all layers of the skin, affecting nerve endings. Choice A describes characteristics of superficial partial-thickness burns, which involve the epidermis and part of the dermis. Choice B describes characteristics of superficial burns, or first-degree burns, which only affect the epidermis. Choice C describes characteristics of superficial to mid-dermal burns, also known as second-degree burns, which involve the epidermis and part of the dermis but do not extend through all skin layers. Therefore, the correct answer is D.

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