a nurse is caring for four clients which client should the nurse assess first
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Nursing Elites

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PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form A

1. A nurse is caring for four clients. Which client should the nurse assess first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. The client with hypothyroidism who is stuporous should be assessed first as this may indicate a critical condition, possibly related to severe hypothyroidism. Stupor is a state of near-unconsciousness or insensibility, suggesting a decline in neurological function that requires immediate evaluation. Choices A, B, and D do not present with immediate life-threatening conditions that require urgent assessment. While chemotherapy, post-appendectomy complications, and burn care are important, they do not pose the same level of immediate risk as a stuporous client.

2. A nurse is caring for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which of the following should the nurse assess for?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with COPD, the nurse should assess for the use of accessory muscles. This is important because COPD can lead to increased work of breathing, causing the client to engage accessory muscles to help with respiration. Assessing for the use of accessory muscles provides crucial information about the client's respiratory effort. Respiratory rate (Choice A) is a standard assessment parameter but may not specifically indicate the severity of COPD. Chest pain (Choice B) is not typically associated with COPD unless there are complicating factors. Oxygen saturation (Choice D) is essential to monitor in COPD clients, but assessing for the use of accessory muscles takes priority as it directly reflects the client's respiratory status in COPD.

3. A client is being taught about the use of digoxin. Which of the following should be included?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'It can cause bradycardia.' Digoxin can cause bradycardia as one of its side effects. Clients should be educated about this potential effect and instructed to monitor their heart rate before taking the medication. Choice A is incorrect because digoxin is more likely to cause arrhythmias than low blood pressure. Choice C is incorrect as calcium supplements can interfere with the absorption of digoxin. Choice D is incorrect as digoxin has various side effects, and clients should be aware of them.

4. A nurse is updating a plan of care after evaluating a client who has dysphagia. Which interventions should the nurse include in the plan?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with dysphagia is to have them sit upright for 1 hour following meals. This position facilitates swallowing and reduces the risk of aspiration. Choice A is incorrect because having the client lie down after meals can increase the risk of aspiration. Choice B is incorrect as talking while eating can lead to choking. Choice D is incorrect as thin liquids may be harder for a client with dysphagia to swallow safely.

5. A nurse is reviewing discharge instructions with the parents of a newborn. Which of the following statements indicates a need for further teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Leaving the baby's diaper off to prevent diaper rash is not recommended because it increases the risk of infection. Proper diaper hygiene and frequent diaper changes are more effective in preventing diaper rash. Choices A, B, and C are correct as placing the baby on its back to sleep, giving the baby a pacifier at bedtime, and keeping the baby's crib free of blankets and toys are appropriate measures to ensure the newborn's safety and reduce the risk of Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS).

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