Nursing Elites

1. When caring for an older adult client who becomes agitated when asked to remove dentures before surgery, which of the following responses should the nurse make?

• A. "What worries you about being without your teeth?"
• B. "You need to follow the preoperative instructions and remove your dentures."
• C. "It's important to remove dentures to ensure proper fitting of the mask during anesthesia."
• D. "I will explain why dentures need to be removed before surgery."

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response is to ask the client about their concerns regarding being without their teeth. This approach helps address the client's anxiety and provides insight into the reason for their agitation. Choice B is authoritarian and does not address the client's emotional needs. Choice C focuses on the technical aspect of surgery and does not address the client's emotional state. Choice D implies a one-way communication without addressing the client's feelings or concerns.

2. A nurse is collecting data from a client who is receiving IV therapy and reports pain in the arm, chills, and 'not feeling well.' The nurse notes warmth, edema, induration, and red streaking on the client’s arm close to the IV insertion site. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take first?

• A. Obtain a specimen for culture.
• B. Apply a warm compress.
• C. Administer analgesics.
• D. Discontinue the infusion.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Discontinuing the infusion is the first step in addressing potential complications such as phlebitis or infection. It is crucial to prevent further infusion-related damage by stopping the source of the issue. Obtaining a specimen for culture (Choice A) can be considered later to identify the specific microorganism causing the infection. Applying a warm compress (Choice B) or administering analgesics (Choice C) may provide comfort but do not address the underlying issue of infection or phlebitis, which requires immediate intervention by discontinuing the infusion.

3. A client with asthma is prescribed a corticosteroid inhaler. Which instruction should the nurse provide to the client to prevent a common side effect of this medication?

• A. Use the inhaler only when experiencing asthma symptoms.
• B. Rinse the mouth with water after using the inhaler.
• C. Increase fluid intake while using the inhaler.
• D. Avoid eating or drinking for 30 minutes after using the inhaler.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for the client using a corticosteroid inhaler to prevent a common side effect is to rinse the mouth with water after using the inhaler. Corticosteroid inhalers can lead to oral thrush, a fungal infection in the mouth. Rinsing the mouth helps reduce the risk of developing oral thrush. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because using the inhaler only when experiencing symptoms, increasing fluid intake, or avoiding eating/drinking for 30 minutes after use are not directly related to preventing oral thrush, which is the common side effect associated with corticosteroid inhalers.

4. A client is experiencing dehydration, and the nurse is planning care. Which of the following actions should the nurse include?

• A. Administer antihypertensives as prescribed.
• B. Check the client’s weight daily.
• C. Notify the provider if the urine output is less than 30 mL/hr.
• D. Encourage the client to ambulate independently four times a day.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Checking the client's weight daily is essential for monitoring fluid status in dehydration. Administering antihypertensives, notifying the provider of insufficient urine output, and encouraging ambulation are not primary interventions for managing dehydration. Administering antihypertensives may affect blood pressure, but it is not a direct intervention for dehydration. Notifying the provider of a urine output less than 30 mL/hr indicates oliguria, which is a sign of reduced kidney function rather than dehydration. Encouraging ambulation is a general nursing intervention and does not directly address the fluid imbalance associated with dehydration.

5. What intervention is most important for the LPN/LVN to implement for a male client experiencing urinary retention?

• A. Apply a condom catheter.
• B. Apply a skin protectant.
• C. Encourage increased fluid intake.
• D. Assess for bladder distention.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most important intervention for the LPN/LVN to implement for a male client experiencing urinary retention is to assess for bladder distention. This assessment is crucial as it helps identify the underlying cause of urinary retention, such as bladder distention or obstruction. By assessing the bladder, the LPN/LVN can determine the appropriate interventions needed, such as catheterization, medication administration, or further evaluation by the healthcare provider. Applying a condom catheter (Choice A) is more suitable for urinary incontinence, not retention. Applying a skin protectant (Choice B) is typically done to prevent skin breakdown in incontinent clients. Encouraging increased fluid intake (Choice C) may be beneficial for some urinary issues but is not the priority intervention for urinary retention.

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