a nurse is caring for a newborn who is 1 hour old and has a respiratory rate of 50 breaths per minute with periods of apnea lasting up to 10 seconds w
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ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Maternal Newborn

1. A nurse is caring for a newborn who is 1 hour old and has a respiratory rate of 50 breaths per minute with periods of apnea lasting up to 10 seconds. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 50 breaths per minute with occasional periods of apnea lasting less than 15 seconds is normal for a newborn. The nurse should continue routine monitoring unless the apneic periods become prolonged or the newborn shows signs of respiratory distress. Administering oxygen or initiating positive pressure ventilation is not indicated in this scenario as the newborn's respiratory rate and apneic episodes are within normal limits for their age. Stimulating the newborn is also unnecessary since the described parameters fall within the expected range for a 1-hour-old infant.

2. A healthcare professional is assessing a client with heart failure. Which of the following signs should the healthcare professional monitor for?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In heart failure, the accumulation of fluid can lead to peripheral edema, which is swelling in the extremities. This is a common sign that healthcare professionals should monitor for. While tachycardia (increased heart rate), bradycardia (decreased heart rate), and hypotension (low blood pressure) can also occur in heart failure, they are not the primary signs typically associated with this condition. Therefore, peripheral edema is the most relevant sign to monitor in this case.

3. A client with chronic kidney disease is being educated by a nurse about managing their condition. Which of the following statements shows an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Clients with chronic kidney disease often develop anemia due to reduced erythropoietin production, leading to decreased red blood cell production. Iron supplementation is frequently required to enhance red blood cell production. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because in chronic kidney disease, there is a need to restrict phosphorus intake, control carbohydrate intake for blood sugar management, and monitor electrolytes and fluid balance rather than blood glucose levels.

4. A nurse is preparing to administer a dose of iron supplement. Which of the following should the nurse do?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer it on an empty stomach. Iron supplements are best absorbed on an empty stomach to enhance their absorption. It is important to avoid giving them with milk or dairy products as these can inhibit iron absorption. Checking blood pressure and monitoring for allergic reactions are not directly related to the administration of iron supplements and are not the primary considerations in this case.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who reports a possible exposure to HIV. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an early manifestation of HIV infection?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fatigue. A client with early HIV infection can be asymptomatic or experience symptoms like viral infections, such as fever, rash, and fatigue. Fatigue is a common early manifestation of HIV infection due to the body's immune response. Stomatitis (choice A) is more commonly associated with oral health issues or infections. Wasting syndrome (choice C) and lipodystrophy (choice D) are more advanced manifestations seen in later stages of HIV infection, characterized by severe weight loss and changes in body fat distribution, respectively.

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