a nurse is caring for a newborn who is 1 hour old and has a respiratory rate of 50 breaths per minute with periods of apnea lasting up to 10 seconds w
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Maternal Newborn

1. A nurse is caring for a newborn who is 1 hour old and has a respiratory rate of 50 breaths per minute with periods of apnea lasting up to 10 seconds. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 50 breaths per minute with occasional periods of apnea lasting less than 15 seconds is normal for a newborn. The nurse should continue routine monitoring unless the apneic periods become prolonged or the newborn shows signs of respiratory distress. Administering oxygen or initiating positive pressure ventilation is not indicated in this scenario as the newborn's respiratory rate and apneic episodes are within normal limits for their age. Stimulating the newborn is also unnecessary since the described parameters fall within the expected range for a 1-hour-old infant.

2. A healthcare provider is providing dietary teaching to a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which of the following food choices should the healthcare provider recommend?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: A chicken breast. Chicken breast is low in potassium, making it a safe option for clients with chronic kidney disease who need to limit their potassium intake. Foods like bananas and orange juice are high in potassium, which should be avoided or limited by individuals with chronic kidney disease to prevent further kidney damage.

3. A nurse providing dietary teaching for a client who is at 29 weeks of gestation and has phenylketonuria. Which of the following suggested foods should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Clients with phenylketonuria (PKU) must adhere to a strict low-phenylalanine diet to prevent neurological damage. Foods high in phenylalanine such as peanut butter, wheat bread, chocolate chip cookies, milk, scrambled eggs, and cheddar cheese should be avoided. Sliced apples and red grapes are low in phenylalanine, making them safe choices for individuals with PKU. Choice A (peanut butter sandwich on wheat bread), Choice C (chocolate chip cookie with a glass of skim milk), and Choice D (scrambled egg with cheddar cheese) are all high in phenylalanine and should be avoided by individuals with PKU.

4. A client is being taught how to use a diaphragm for contraception. Which of the following client statements indicate an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. The client should place spermicide inside the diaphragm before insertion to enhance contraceptive effectiveness. It is recommended to leave the diaphragm in place for at least 6 hours after intercourse, but not more than 24 hours. Choice A is incorrect because the diaphragm should be left in place for at least 6 hours, not 4 hours. Choice B is incorrect as the diaphragm should be removed by hooking the rim below the dome, not above. Choice C is incorrect because mineral oil should not be used with the diaphragm as it can weaken the latex.

5. A nurse is assessing a client for signs of hypokalemia. Which of the following findings should the nurse look for?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Muscle weakness is a classic sign of hypokalemia. Potassium plays a crucial role in muscle function, and low potassium levels can lead to muscle weakness. Weight gain, elevated blood pressure, and increased thirst are not typically associated with hypokalemia. Weight gain can be seen in conditions like fluid retention, elevated blood pressure can result from various causes, and increased thirst may be a symptom of conditions like diabetes.

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