ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2020 Answers
1. A nurse is caring for a client who is taking digoxin. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a sign of digoxin toxicity?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Hypotension
- D. Hyperkalemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Bradycardia is a common sign of digoxin toxicity. Digoxin, a cardiac glycoside, can lead to toxicity manifesting as bradycardia due to its effect on the heart's electrical conduction system. Tachycardia (choice B) is not typically associated with digoxin toxicity. Hypotension (choice C) and hyperkalemia (choice D) are not direct signs of digoxin toxicity. Therefore, the correct answer is bradycardia.
2. A nurse is providing discharge instructions for a client using home oxygen. What is the most important safety measure?
- A. Store oxygen tanks in a closet when not in use
- B. Ensure that oxygen tanks are kept upright and away from heat sources
- C. Allow family members to smoke in designated areas
- D. Restrict fluid intake while using oxygen
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ensure that oxygen tanks are kept upright and away from heat sources. This is the most important safety measure to prevent accidents related to home oxygen use. Storing oxygen tanks in a closet when not in use (choice A) is not recommended as they should be stored in a well-ventilated area. Allowing family members to smoke in designated areas (choice C) poses a significant fire hazard. Restricting fluid intake while using oxygen (choice D) is not a safety measure related to oxygen use.
3. A client is receiving phenytoin for management of grand mal seizures and has a new prescription for isoniazid and rifampin. Which of the following should the nurse conclude if the client develops ataxia and incoordination?
- A. The client is experiencing an adverse reaction to rifampin.
- B. The client's seizure disorder is no longer under control.
- C. The client is showing evidence of phenytoin toxicity.
- D. The client is having adverse effects due to combination antimicrobial therapy.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Ataxia and incoordination are signs of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse reactions to rifampin or isoniazid. These symptoms indicate that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of phenytoin, requiring a dose adjustment. Choice A is incorrect because rifampin is not typically associated with ataxia and incoordination. Choice B is incorrect as the development of ataxia and incoordination does not necessarily mean the seizure disorder is no longer under control. Choice D is incorrect as the symptoms are more indicative of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse effects of combination antimicrobial therapy.
4. A nurse on an acute unit has received a change of shift report for 4 clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first?
- A. A client who is 1 hr postoperative and has hypoactive bowel sounds.
- B. A client who has a fractured left tibia and pallor in the affected extremity.
- C. A client who had a cardiac catheterization 3 hr ago and has 3+ pedal pulses.
- D. A client who has an elevated AST level following the administration of azithromycin.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because pallor in an extremity after a fracture could indicate compromised circulation, making it a priority for assessment. Choice A is not the priority as hypoactive bowel sounds in a client 1 hr postoperative, while concerning, do not indicate a life-threatening condition. Choice C, a client who had a cardiac catheterization 3 hr ago and has 3+ pedal pulses, indicates good perfusion and does not require immediate attention. Choice D, a client with an elevated AST level following the administration of azithromycin, may require further assessment but is not as urgent as the client with potential compromised circulation in choice B.
5. Which of the following interventions is most appropriate for a client with left-leg weakness who is learning to use a cane?
- A. Maintain two points of support on the floor at all times
- B. Use the cane on the weak side of the body
- C. Advance the cane and the strong leg simultaneously
- D. Advance the cane 30 to 45 cm (12-18 in) with each step
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The most appropriate intervention for a client with left-leg weakness learning to use a cane is to maintain two points of support on the floor at all times. This ensures stability and helps distribute weight evenly between the legs, reducing the risk of falls. Using the cane on the weak side of the body (Choice B) may not provide adequate support. Advancing the cane and the strong leg simultaneously (Choice C) can lead to imbalance and increases the risk of falls. Advancing the cane too far with each step (Choice D) can also compromise balance and stability.
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