Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following assessment findings requires immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Prealbumin level of 20 mg/dL
• B. Weight increase of 2 kg/day
• C. Temperature of 37.6°C
• D. Blood glucose level of 120 mg/dL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A rapid weight gain of 2 kg/day suggests fluid overload, a possible complication of TPN. This requires immediate intervention to prevent further complications such as pulmonary edema. The other options are not indicative of immediate complications related to TPN. A low prealbumin level may indicate malnutrition but does not require immediate intervention. A slightly elevated temperature and blood glucose level are within normal ranges and do not warrant immediate action.

2. A postpartum client's fundus is firm, 3 cm above the umbilicus, and displaced to the right. Which of the following interventions should the nurse take?

• A. Massage the fundus
• B. Administer oxytocin
• C. Assist the client to void then reassess the fundus
• D. Notify the healthcare provider

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention for a postpartum client with a firm, displaced fundus is to assist the client to void then reassess the fundus. Displacement of the uterus to the right is often a sign of bladder distention, which can prevent the uterus from contracting properly and increase the risk of postpartum hemorrhage. By helping the client to void, the nurse can alleviate the bladder distention, allowing the uterus to contract effectively. Massaging the fundus (Choice A) may not address the underlying issue of bladder distention. Administering oxytocin (Choice B) is not indicated without assessing and addressing the cause of the displacement. Notifying the healthcare provider (Choice D) is premature before implementing initial nursing interventions to address the potential cause of the displaced fundus.

3. A client gave birth 4 hours ago and is experiencing excessive vaginal bleeding. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take first?

• A. Elevate the client's legs to a 30° angle
• B. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter
• C. Massage the client's fundus
• D. Initiate an infusion of oxytocin

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to massage the client's fundus first. Uterine atony is a common cause of postpartum hemorrhage, and massaging the fundus can help stimulate uterine contractions, which will assist in reducing bleeding. Elevating the client's legs to a 30° angle (Choice A) is not the priority in this situation as fundal massage takes precedence. Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter (Choice B) may be necessary but should not take precedence over managing the postpartum hemorrhage. Initiating an infusion of oxytocin (Choice D) is a valid intervention to address uterine atony, but massaging the fundus should come first to promote immediate contraction and control bleeding.

4. A nurse is preparing to administer prochlorperazine 2.5 mg IV. Available is prochlorperazine injection 5 mg/mL. How many mL should the nurse administer?

• A. 0.2 mL
• B. 0.5 mL
• C. 1.0 mL
• D. 1.5 mL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To determine the volume of prochlorperazine to administer, divide the prescribed dose (2.5 mg) by the concentration of the medication (5 mg/mL). This calculation results in 0.5 mL. Therefore, the nurse should administer 0.5 mL to deliver the correct dose. Choice A (0.2 mL) is incorrect as it miscalculates the dosage. Choices C (1.0 mL) and D (1.5 mL) are also incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the calculated volume needed for the dose.

5. A nurse is caring for a client prescribed ferrous sulfate for the treatment of anemia. Which of the following instructions should be included in client teaching about this medication?

• A. Take the medication on an empty stomach
• B. Notify your provider if your stool becomes dark green
• C. Decrease dietary fiber intake while taking this medication
• D. Take prescribed antacids at the same time as this medication

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed ferrous sulfate for anemia is to take the medication on an empty stomach. This is because ferrous sulfate is best absorbed in an acidic environment, which is enhanced on an empty stomach. However, if the client experiences gastrointestinal side effects, they can take the medication with food. Choice B, notifying the provider if stool becomes dark green, is correct because dark or black stools are common with iron therapy and not a cause for concern. Choice C, decreasing dietary fiber intake, is incorrect as dietary fiber does not interfere with the absorption of ferrous sulfate. Choice D, taking prescribed antacids at the same time, is incorrect as antacids can decrease the absorption of ferrous sulfate.

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