ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form A
1. A nurse is caring for a client who is 38 weeks pregnant and has a history of herpes simplex virus 2. Which question is most appropriate for the nurse to ask?
- A. Have your membranes ruptured?
- B. How far apart are your contractions?
- C. Do you have any active lesions?
- D. Are you positive for beta strep?
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The most appropriate question for the nurse to ask is whether the client has any active herpes lesions. This is crucial because the presence of active lesions can necessitate a cesarean section to prevent transmission of the virus to the newborn. Asking about membrane rupture (choice A) is important but not directly related to the client's herpes simplex virus 2 status. Inquiring about the frequency of contractions (choice B) is relevant for assessing labor progression but does not address the immediate concern of herpes transmission. Asking about being positive for beta strep (choice D) is important for determining the need for prophylactic antibiotics during labor, but it is not directly related to the client's herpes simplex virus 2 status.
2. A client with burn injuries covering their upper body is concerned about their altered appearance. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
- A. “It is okay to not want to touch the burned areas of your body.”
- B. “Cosmetic surgery should be performed within the next year to be effective.”
- C. “Reconstructive surgery can completely restore your previous appearance.”
- D. “It could be helpful for you to attend a support group for people who have burn injuries.”
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The nurse should encourage the client to attend a support group for individuals with burn injuries. Support groups can provide emotional support, promote acceptance of altered appearance, and help the client cope with the changes. Choice A is incorrect because it may not address the client's emotional needs. Choice B is incorrect as suggesting a timeline for cosmetic surgery may not be appropriate without considering the client's physical and emotional readiness. Choice C is incorrect as reconstructive surgery may not completely restore the client's previous appearance and may set unrealistic expectations.
3. A nurse is assessing a client who is 24 hours postpartum. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the healthcare provider?
- A. Uterine fundus is firm and midline
- B. Client's perineal pad is saturated in 15 minutes
- C. Client reports breast tenderness when breastfeeding
- D. Client's temperature is 100.4°F
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A perineal pad saturated in 15 minutes is a sign of excessive postpartum bleeding, which requires immediate medical attention to prevent postpartum hemorrhage. The other findings are normal postpartum occurrences. A firm and midline uterine fundus indicates proper involution, breast tenderness during breastfeeding is common due to engorgement, and a temperature of 100.4°F is considered within the normal range for the postpartum period.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who has been prescribed furosemide. Which of the following foods should the nurse encourage the client to include in their diet?
- A. Table salt
- B. Egg yolks
- C. White wine
- D. Oranges
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Furosemide is a potassium-wasting diuretic, so clients should consume potassium-rich foods like oranges to prevent hypokalemia. Oranges are a good source of potassium. Table salt, egg yolks, and white wine do not provide significant amounts of potassium and are not beneficial for a client taking furosemide.
5. A client receiving opiates for pain management was initially sedated but is no longer sedated after three days. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Initiate additional non-pharmacological pain management techniques.
- B. Notify the provider that a dosage adjustment is needed.
- C. No action is needed at this time.
- D. Contact the provider to request an alternate method of pain management.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: No action is needed at this time. Sedation from opiates commonly decreases as the body adjusts to the medication. It is a positive sign that the sedation has resolved, indicating the client is tolerating the current dosage well. Initiating additional non-pharmacological pain management techniques (Choice A) is unnecessary since the current pain management regimen is effective. Notifying the provider for a dosage adjustment (Choice B) is premature and not indicated when the sedation has resolved. Contacting the provider to request an alternate method of pain management (Choice D) is excessive and not warranted in this situation where the client is no longer sedated and the current pain management plan is effective.
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