ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 B with NGN
1. A nurse is preparing to administer a dose of escitalopram. Which of the following should the nurse assess first?
- A. Mood changes
- B. Blood pressure
- C. Heart rate
- D. Liver function
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to assess for mood changes. When administering escitalopram, it is crucial to evaluate mood changes first because the medication may take some time to demonstrate its full effects on the patient's mood. Assessing blood pressure, heart rate, or liver function is not the priority when administering escitalopram, as these parameters are not directly impacted acutely by this medication.
2. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a new diagnosis of dysphagia. Which of the following foods should be included when initiating feeding?
- A. Beef broth
- B. Oatmeal
- C. Apple juice
- D. Toast
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Oatmeal is a soft, easy-to-swallow food, making it appropriate for clients with dysphagia, as it minimizes the risk of aspiration compared to liquids or hard foods. Beef broth (Choice A) is a liquid and may pose a risk of aspiration. Apple juice (Choice C) is a liquid and can also be a choking hazard for individuals with dysphagia. Toast (Choice D) is a hard food that may be difficult for a client with dysphagia to swallow safely.
3. A client is prescribed spironolactone. Which of the following dietary instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Increase potassium-rich foods
- B. Limit sodium intake
- C. Avoid potassium supplements
- D. Increase protein intake
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to advise the client to avoid potassium supplements. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, meaning it helps the body retain potassium. Adding potassium supplements on top of this medication can lead to hyperkalemia, an elevated level of potassium in the blood, which can be dangerous. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because increasing potassium-rich foods, limiting sodium intake, and increasing protein intake are not specifically related to the dietary considerations when taking spironolactone.
4. A laboring client received meperidine IV one hour prior to delivery. Which of the following medications should the nurse have available to counteract the effects of this medication on the newborn?
- A. Naloxone
- B. Epinephrine
- C. Atropine
- D. Diazepam
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Meperidine is an opioid analgesic that can cross the placenta and cause respiratory depression in the newborn. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that is administered to reverse the effects of opioids. It is critical to have Naloxone available when opioids are administered during labor, especially close to delivery. Epinephrine is not used to counteract the effects of opioids but rather for managing severe allergic reactions or cardiac arrest. Atropine is used for specific conditions like bradycardia, not to counteract opioid effects. Diazepam is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety, seizures, and muscle spasms, not for reversing opioid effects.
5. A charge nurse is evaluating the time management skills of a newly licensed nurse. The charge nurse should intervene when the newly licensed nurse does which of the following?
- A. Re-evaluates priorities halfway through the shift
- B. Delegates changing a sterile dressing to a licensed practical nurse
- C. Groups activities for the same client
- D. Works on several tasks simultaneously
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Working on several tasks simultaneously may lead to errors due to divided attention and lack of focus. It is important for nurses to prioritize tasks and complete them one at a time to ensure thoroughness and accuracy. Choices A, B, and C are appropriate time management strategies. Re-evaluating priorities, delegating tasks appropriately, and grouping activities for the same client can help improve efficiency and quality of care.
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