ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment B Quizlet
1. A client with HIV and neutropenia requires specific care from the nurse. Which of the following precautions should the nurse take while caring for this client?
- A. Wear an N95 respirator while caring for the client.
- B. Use a dedicated stethoscope for the client.
- C. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter to monitor urinary output.
- D. Monitor the client’s vital signs every 8 hours.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Using dedicated equipment for a neutropenic client, such as a stethoscope, helps prevent infections. Neutropenic clients have a weakened immune system, making them vulnerable to infections from common pathogens. Wearing an N95 respirator is not necessary unless airborne precautions are required. Inserting a urinary catheter should be avoided unless necessary to prevent introducing pathogens. Monitoring vital signs should be done more frequently, typically every 4 hours, to promptly identify any changes in the client's condition.
2. A client with burn injuries covering their upper body is concerned about their altered appearance. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
- A. “It is okay to not want to touch the burned areas of your body.”
- B. “Cosmetic surgery should be performed within the next year to be effective.”
- C. “Reconstructive surgery can completely restore your previous appearance.”
- D. “It could be helpful for you to attend a support group for people who have burn injuries.”
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The nurse should encourage the client to attend a support group for individuals with burn injuries. Support groups can provide emotional support, promote acceptance of altered appearance, and help the client cope with the changes. Choice A is incorrect because it may not address the client's emotional needs. Choice B is incorrect as suggesting a timeline for cosmetic surgery may not be appropriate without considering the client's physical and emotional readiness. Choice C is incorrect as reconstructive surgery may not completely restore the client's previous appearance and may set unrealistic expectations.
3. A healthcare provider is assessing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) receiving oxygen therapy. Which of the following findings indicates oxygen toxicity?
- A. Oxygen saturation 94%
- B. Decreased respiratory rate
- C. Wheezing
- D. Peripheral cyanosis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Decreased respiratory rate. In clients with COPD, especially when receiving oxygen therapy, a decreased respiratory rate is indicative of oxygen toxicity. This occurs because their respiratory drive is often dependent on low oxygen levels. Oxygen saturation of 94% is within an acceptable range and does not necessarily indicate oxygen toxicity. Wheezing is more commonly associated with airway narrowing or constriction, while peripheral cyanosis is a sign of decreased oxygen levels in the peripheral tissues, not oxygen toxicity.
4. A nurse is caring for a client with a new prescription for metoprolol. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?
- A. Blood pressure
- B. Liver function
- C. Serum potassium levels
- D. Blood glucose
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Metoprolol is a beta-blocker commonly used to treat conditions like hypertension and angina. As a beta-blocker, it primarily affects the cardiovascular system by reducing heart rate and blood pressure. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client's blood pressure regularly to assess the drug's effectiveness and ensure that it is within the therapeutic range. Monitoring liver function, serum potassium levels, or blood glucose is not typically required for clients taking metoprolol, as its primary impact is on the heart and blood vessels, making choice A the most appropriate monitoring parameter.
5. A nurse enters a patient's room and finds the client pulseless. The living will requests no resuscitation be performed, but the provider has not written the prescription. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Notify the family.
- B. Begin CPR.
- C. Await further instructions from the provider.
- D. Document the event.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to begin CPR. Even though the living will requests no resuscitation, without a written do-not-resuscitate (DNR) order from the provider, the nurse is ethically and legally bound to initiate CPR to provide life-saving measures until further confirmation is obtained. Notifying the family (Choice A) may cause a delay in providing immediate care. Waiting for further instructions (Choice C) can be time-consuming and compromise patient outcomes. Documenting the event (Choice D) is important but should follow after initiating CPR to ensure patient safety and adherence to protocols.
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