a nurse is caring for a client who has hiv with neutropenia which of the following precautions should the nurse take while caring for this client
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ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment B Quizlet

1. A client with HIV and neutropenia requires specific care from the nurse. Which of the following precautions should the nurse take while caring for this client?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Using dedicated equipment for a neutropenic client, such as a stethoscope, helps prevent infections. Neutropenic clients have a weakened immune system, making them vulnerable to infections from common pathogens. Wearing an N95 respirator is not necessary unless airborne precautions are required. Inserting a urinary catheter should be avoided unless necessary to prevent introducing pathogens. Monitoring vital signs should be done more frequently, typically every 4 hours, to promptly identify any changes in the client's condition.

2. A client with multiple sclerosis reports diplopia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when caring for a client with multiple sclerosis reporting diplopia is to recommend alternating eye patches during the day. This strategy can help relieve diplopia (double vision) by allowing each eye to rest alternately, reducing eye strain. Encouraging the client to focus on a distant object (Choice A) is not an appropriate intervention for diplopia in this case. Applying a warm compress to the client's eyes (Choice B) and administering artificial tears (Choice D) are not effective interventions for diplopia associated with multiple sclerosis.

3. A nurse is providing discharge instructions about breast engorgement to a client who has decided not to breastfeed. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further instruction?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Manually expressing breast milk will stimulate more milk production, which contradicts the goal of reducing milk supply in clients who choose not to breastfeed. Choices A, B, and D are correct statements that can help relieve breast engorgement without promoting further milk production.

4. A school nurse is providing care for students in an elementary education facility. What intervention by the nurse addresses the primary level of prevention?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Teach students about healthy food choices. Teaching healthy habits like proper nutrition is an example of primary prevention because it aims to prevent disease before it occurs. Choice A, monitoring for signs of illness, is more related to secondary prevention (early detection and treatment). Choice C, administering medication to students with chronic conditions, is a form of tertiary prevention (managing existing conditions to prevent complications). Choice D, monitoring immunization compliance, is also a form of primary prevention but focuses on preventing specific infectious diseases through immunization rather than general health promotion.

5. A client in labor has an epidural for pain control. Which of the following clinical manifestations is an adverse effect of epidural anesthesia?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Pruritus is a common adverse effect of epidural anesthesia, often due to the opioids administered with the epidural. It presents as itching on the skin and can cause significant discomfort to the client. Polyuria (excessive urination) and dry mouth are not typical adverse effects of epidural anesthesia. Hypertension is not commonly associated with epidural anesthesia; in fact, hypotension is a more frequent complication due to sympathetic blockade. Therefore, the correct answer is pruritus (choice C), as it is a known adverse effect of epidural anesthesia.

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