a nurse is caring for a client who has hiv with neutropenia which of the following precautions should the nurse take while caring for this client
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ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment B Quizlet

1. A client with HIV and neutropenia requires specific care from the nurse. Which of the following precautions should the nurse take while caring for this client?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Using dedicated equipment for a neutropenic client, such as a stethoscope, helps prevent infections. Neutropenic clients have a weakened immune system, making them vulnerable to infections from common pathogens. Wearing an N95 respirator is not necessary unless airborne precautions are required. Inserting a urinary catheter should be avoided unless necessary to prevent introducing pathogens. Monitoring vital signs should be done more frequently, typically every 4 hours, to promptly identify any changes in the client's condition.

2. A client is prescribed metronidazole for a bacterial infection. Which of the following should the nurse teach the client?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Avoid alcohol while taking this medication.' Metronidazole can cause a disulfiram-like reaction with alcohol, leading to symptoms like nausea, vomiting, flushing, and headache. Therefore, clients should be instructed to avoid alcohol consumption. Choice B is incorrect because metronidazole is not considered safe during pregnancy, especially in the first trimester. Choice C is incorrect as metronidazole is not known to cause increased appetite. Choice D is also incorrect as hair loss is not a common side effect of metronidazole.

3. A healthcare professional is assessing a client in the PACU. Which of the following findings indicates decreased cardiac output?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Oliguria (low urine output) is a sign of decreased cardiac output because the kidneys are not being adequately perfused, leading to reduced urine production. Shivering (choice A) is a response to hypothermia, not directly related to cardiac output. Bradypnea (choice C) refers to abnormally slow breathing rate and is not a direct indicator of decreased cardiac output. Constricted pupils (choice D) can be caused by medications or sympathetic nervous system stimulation but are not specific to decreased cardiac output.

4. A client who was incarcerated for theft is addressing the group in a County Jail health clinic. Which of the following is an example of reaction formation?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because reaction formation occurs when a person expresses the opposite of what they feel. In this case, the client is advocating for honesty, despite their own history of theft. Choice A discusses stealing to distract from a bad marriage, which does not involve expressing the opposite of one's feelings. Choice B focuses on denial, not reaction formation. Choice C involves delaying emotional discussion, which is not related to expressing the opposite of one's true feelings.

5. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has tuberculosis (TB) and is prescribed rifampin. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Rifampin can cause harmless red-orange discoloration of bodily fluids, including urine, sweat, and tears. Clients should be informed about this side effect. Choice B is incorrect because the duration of rifampin therapy for TB is typically longer than 6 months. Choice C is incorrect as there is no need to avoid dairy products while on rifampin. Choice D is incorrect as rifampin does not cause sensitivity to sunlight.

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