a nurse is caring for a client at 32 weeks gestation with a history of cardiac disease which position should the nurse recommend to promote optimal ca
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form B

1. A nurse is caring for a client at 32 weeks gestation with a history of cardiac disease. Which position should the nurse recommend to promote optimal cardiac output?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The left lateral position is the correct choice to promote optimal cardiac output in a pregnant client at 32 weeks gestation with cardiac disease. This position improves venous return and decreases pressure on the vena cava, helping optimize cardiac output. Standing (choice B) would not be recommended as it may decrease venous return. The supine position (choice C) should be avoided in pregnant clients with cardiac disease as it can compress the vena cava, reducing cardiac output and potentially causing hypotension. The chest (choice A) is not a valid position recommendation for optimizing cardiac output in this scenario.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who has pericarditis. Which of the following findings is the priority?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Paradoxical pulse. Paradoxical pulse, which is a significant drop in systolic blood pressure during inspiration, indicates cardiac tamponade, a life-threatening complication of pericarditis. This finding requires immediate attention as it suggests potential compromised cardiac function. Choices B, C, and D are associated with pericarditis but do not indicate the same level of urgency as paradoxical pulse.

3. A client at risk for coronary artery disease seeks advice from a nurse. What should the nurse recommend to reduce the risk?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct recommendation to reduce the risk of coronary artery disease is to exercise for at least 150 minutes per week. Regular exercise is crucial in maintaining cardiovascular health and reducing the chances of developing heart disease. Increasing intake of saturated fats (Choice A) is counterproductive as it can raise cholesterol levels and contribute to arterial plaque formation. Taking iron supplements daily (Choice C) is not directly related to reducing the risk of coronary artery disease. Limiting fruits and vegetables in the diet (Choice D) is also not advisable, as they are essential components of a heart-healthy diet due to their high fiber and nutrient content.

4. A nurse is preparing to administer IV furosemide. Which of the following should the nurse monitor for during the infusion?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that works by increasing the excretion of water and electrolytes, particularly potassium. Therefore, the nurse should monitor for hypokalemia, as low potassium levels can lead to various complications such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Choice A, increased urinary output, is an expected effect of furosemide due to its diuretic action but is not a side effect needing monitoring. Ototoxicity (Choice B) is a potential adverse effect of other medications like aminoglycoside antibiotics, not furosemide. Hypoglycemia (Choice D) is not a common side effect associated with furosemide administration.

5. A nurse is caring for a client with a history of hypertension. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Blood pressure. When caring for a client with a history of hypertension, monitoring blood pressure is crucial as it allows the nurse to assess the effectiveness of management and adjust treatment if necessary. Monitoring fluid intake (Choice A) is important for conditions like heart failure, but in hypertension, the focus is primarily on blood pressure. Monitoring serum potassium levels (Choice C) is relevant in clients taking certain medications like diuretics, and weight (Choice D) is important for overall health assessment but is not the primary parameter to monitor in hypertension.

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