Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has been taking haloperidol for several years. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse recognize as a long-term side effect of this medication?

• A. Lip-smacking
• B. Agranulocytosis
• C. Clang association
• D. Alopecia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lip-smacking is a symptom of tardive dyskinesia, a long-term side effect of antipsychotic medications like haloperidol, characterized by involuntary movements of the face and jaw. Agranulocytosis (Choice B) is a rare but serious side effect of some medications, characterized by a dangerously low white blood cell count. Clang association (Choice C) is a thought disorder characterized by the association of words based on sound rather than meaning. Alopecia (Choice D) refers to hair loss, which is not a known long-term side effect of haloperidol.

2. A nurse is providing education on the use of corticosteroids. Which of the following should be included?

• A. Monitor for signs of hyperglycemia
• B. Avoid abrupt discontinuation
• C. Long-term use may have risks
• D. Monitor for signs of dehydration

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor for signs of hyperglycemia when educating on corticosteroids. Corticosteroids can increase blood glucose levels, making it essential to watch for hyperglycemia, especially in diabetic patients. Choice B is incorrect because corticosteroids should not be abruptly stopped due to the risk of adrenal insufficiency. Choice C is incorrect as corticosteroids are associated with various adverse effects, making long-term use risky. Choice D is incorrect as dehydration is not typically a primary concern directly related to corticosteroid use.

3. While receiving a change of shift report on a group of clients, which patient should the nurse assess first?

• A. The client who has a fractured femur and reports sharp chest pain.
• B. The client who has a fever and is receiving antibiotics.
• C. The client who has a urinary tract infection and reports pain with urination.
• D. The client who is scheduled for surgery in the afternoon.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should assess the client with a fractured femur and sharp chest pain first. Sharp chest pain in this client may indicate a pulmonary embolism, a life-threatening condition requiring immediate attention. The other options describe important patient conditions but do not pose an immediate threat to life like a potential pulmonary embolism does.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing alcohol withdrawal. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?

• A. Encourage frequent ambulation
• B. Administer lorazepam
• C. Provide a low-calorie diet
• D. Administer insulin as prescribed

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client experiencing alcohol withdrawal is to administer lorazepam. Lorazepam, a benzodiazepine, is commonly used to manage the symptoms of alcohol withdrawal by preventing seizures and reducing agitation and anxiety. Encouraging frequent ambulation (choice A) may not be safe during alcohol withdrawal due to potential instability and confusion. Providing a low-calorie diet (choice C) is not a priority during alcohol withdrawal, as the focus is on managing withdrawal symptoms. Administering insulin as prescribed (choice D) is unrelated to managing alcohol withdrawal symptoms.

5. A nurse is performing a focused assessment for a client who has dysrhythmias. What indicates ineffective cardiac contractions?

• A. Increased blood pressure
• B. Pulse deficit
• C. Normal heart rate
• D. Elevated oxygen saturation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pulse deficit. A pulse deficit is a significant finding in clients with dysrhythmias, indicating ineffective cardiac contractions. Pulse deficit occurs when there is a difference between the apical and radial pulses, suggesting that not all heart contractions are strong enough to produce a pulse that can be felt peripherally. Increased blood pressure (choice A) may occur due to various factors and is not a direct indicator of ineffective cardiac contractions. Similarly, a normal heart rate (choice C) and elevated oxygen saturation (choice D) do not specifically point towards ineffective cardiac contractions; they can be present in individuals with dysrhythmias but do not directly indicate ineffective cardiac contractions.

Similar Questions