Nursing Elites

1. A client has an indwelling urinary catheter. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent infection?

• A. Ensure the catheter tubing is free of kinks.
• B. Clean the perineal area with antiseptic solution daily.
• C. Irrigate the catheter with normal saline every shift.
• D. Secure the catheter to the client's leg.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Cleaning the perineal area with antiseptic solution daily is essential to prevent infection when caring for a client with an indwelling urinary catheter. This practice helps reduce the risk of introducing pathogens into the urinary tract. Ensuring the catheter tubing is free of kinks (Choice A) is important for maintaining proper urine flow but is not directly related to preventing infection. Irrigating the catheter with normal saline every shift (Choice C) is not a routine practice and can increase the risk of introducing pathogens. Securing the catheter to the client's leg (Choice D) is important for stability but does not directly prevent infection.

2. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with a history of atrial fibrillation. Which assessment finding would be most concerning?

• A. Blood pressure of 150/90 mmHg
• B. Irregular heart rhythm
• C. Shortness of breath
• D. Fatigue

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Shortness of breath is the most concerning assessment finding in a client with a history of atrial fibrillation. It can indicate a worsening of the condition, pulmonary edema, or the development of a complication such as heart failure. A blood pressure of 150/90 mmHg, while elevated, is not as immediately concerning as respiratory distress in this context. An irregular heart rhythm is expected in atrial fibrillation and may not necessarily be a new or concerning finding. Fatigue is a common symptom in atrial fibrillation but is not as acutely concerning as shortness of breath, which may indicate compromised oxygenation and circulation.

3. A client is scheduled for a total laryngectomy. Which of the following interventions is the priority for the nurse?

• A. Schedule a support session for the client.
• B. Explain the techniques of esophageal speech.
• C. Review the use of artificial larynx with the client.
• D. Determine the client's reading ability.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority intervention for a client scheduled for a total laryngectomy is to explain the techniques of esophageal speech. This is crucial for the client's post-surgery communication. Option A, scheduling a support session, is important but not the priority as ensuring the client can communicate effectively comes first. Option C, reviewing the use of artificial larynx, is relevant but not the priority compared to teaching esophageal speech. Option D, determining the client's reading ability, is not as critical as ensuring the client learns a primary method of communication following the laryngectomy.

4. A healthcare professional is caring for a client who has a new prescription for antihypertensive medication. Prior to administering the medication, the healthcare professional uses an electronic database to gather information about the medication and the effects it might have on this client. Which of the following components of critical thinking is the healthcare professional using when reviewing the medication information?

• A. Knowledge
• B. Experience
• C. Intuition
• D. Competence

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Knowledge. In this scenario, the healthcare professional is utilizing knowledge by gathering and applying information about the medication. Choice B, Experience, is not the best option as the focus is on accessing information about the medication rather than personal experience. Choice C, Intuition, refers to a gut feeling or instinct, which is not evident in the scenario. Choice D, Competence, relates more to overall ability and proficiency rather than the specific act of seeking information.

5. During a skin assessment, a client expresses concern about skin cancer. What findings should the nurse identify as a potential indication of a skin malignancy?

• A. A mole with an asymmetrical appearance.
• B. A mole with a regular border.
• C. A mole that is the same color throughout.
• D. A mole that is smaller than 6mm in diameter.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: A mole with an asymmetrical appearance. Asymmetry is a key characteristic of potential skin malignancy. An asymmetrical mole does not have a uniform shape when divided in half. This irregularity raises suspicion for skin cancer. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. A mole with a regular border (B) is more likely to be benign. A mole that is the same color throughout (C) is also a feature commonly seen in benign moles. Additionally, a mole smaller than 6mm in diameter (D) is not necessarily indicative of malignancy, as some melanomas can be smaller or larger than this size.

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