HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Exam
1. A client with a history of falls is under the care of a nurse. Which of the following actions should be the nurse’s priority?
- A. Complete a fall-risk assessment.
- B. Educate the client and family about fall risks.
- C. Eliminate safety hazards from the client’s environment.
- D. Ensure the client uses assistive aids in their possession.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The nurse's priority should be to eliminate safety hazards from the client's environment as it directly reduces the risk of falls. Addressing environmental hazards is an immediate and crucial step in preventing falls. While completing a fall-risk assessment is important to understand the client's risk factors, educating the client and family about fall risks is essential for prevention, and ensuring the use of assistive aids is crucial for safety, eliminating safety hazards takes precedence as it directly mitigates the risk of falls.
2. A healthcare professional in a provider's office is reviewing the laboratory findings of a client who reports chills and aching joints. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional identify as an indication that the client has an infection?
- A. WBC 15,000/mm³
- B. Hemoglobin 12 g/dL
- C. Platelet count 300,000/mm³
- D. Sodium 140 mEq/L
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An elevated white blood cell count (WBC 15,000/mm³) is a common indicator of infection as the body increases WBC production to fight off pathogens. In conditions like infections, inflammation, or stress, the WBC count can rise. The other options, hemoglobin, platelet count, and sodium levels, are not typically specific indicators of infection. Hemoglobin measures the oxygen-carrying capacity of red blood cells, platelet count assesses clotting ability, and sodium levels indicate electrolyte balance.
3. A PN is assigned to care for a newborn with a neural tube defect. Which dressing, if applied by the PN, would need no further intervention by the charge nurse?
- A. Telfa dressing with antibiotic ointment
- B. Moist sterile non-adherent dressing
- C. Dry sterile dressing that is occlusive
- D. Sterile occlusive pressure dressing
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Moist sterile non-adherent dressing. A moist sterile non-adherent dressing is suitable for covering a neural tube defect and would not require further intervention. This type of dressing helps prevent the dressing from sticking to the wound, minimizing trauma during dressing changes. Choice A, Telfa dressing with antibiotic ointment, is not ideal for a neural tube defect as the ointment may not be necessary and can complicate wound care. Choice C, dry sterile dressing that is occlusive, is not recommended for a neural tube defect as it may not provide the necessary environment for proper wound healing. Choice D, sterile occlusive pressure dressing, is excessive for a neural tube defect and may cause unnecessary pressure on the wound site.
4. When should the nurse plan to collect a sputum specimen for culture and sensitivity as ordered by a client's provider?
- A. In the morning upon rising.
- B. Immediately after the client eats breakfast.
- C. Before the client goes to bed.
- D. After the client has had a drink of water.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct time to collect a sputum specimen for culture and sensitivity is in the morning upon rising. This timing ensures the most concentrated sample as sputum produced overnight tends to accumulate and sit in the airways, providing a quality sample for testing. Collecting the specimen immediately after eating breakfast (choice B) may introduce food particles that could contaminate the sample. Collecting it before bed (choice C) may lead to a diluted sample due to daily activities. Collecting the specimen after having a drink of water (choice D) can also result in a diluted sample, impacting the accuracy of the test results.
5. When admitting a 5-month-old who has vomited 9 times in the past 6 hours, what should the healthcare provider observe for signs of which overall imbalance?
- A. Metabolic acidosis
- B. Metabolic alkalosis
- C. Increased serum hemoglobin levels
- D. Decreased serum potassium levels
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a 5-month-old infant vomits multiple times, there is a risk of developing metabolic alkalosis due to the loss of stomach acid. Metabolic alkalosis is characterized by elevated pH and bicarbonate levels. It is caused by the loss of hydrogen ions from the body, often through vomiting. Metabolic acidosis (choice A) is unlikely in this scenario because it is more commonly associated with conditions like renal failure or diabetic ketoacidosis. Choice C, increased serum hemoglobin levels, is not typically a direct consequence of vomiting. Choice D, decreased serum potassium levels, may occur with vomiting but is not the primary concern when a patient is vomiting excessively.
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