Nursing Elites

1. A client asks a nurse about their Snellen eye test results. The client's visual acuity is 20/30. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

• A. “Your eyes see at 20 feet what visually unimpaired eyes see at 30 feet.”
• B. “Your right eye can see the chart clearly at 20 feet, and your left eye can see the chart clearly at 30 feet.”
• C. “Your eyes see at 30 feet what visually unimpaired eyes see at 20 feet.”
• D. “Your left eye can see the chart clearly at 20 feet, and your right eye can see the chart clearly at 30 feet.”

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Your eyes see at 20 feet what visually unimpaired eyes see at 30 feet.' In the Snellen eye test, a visual acuity of 20/30 means that the client sees at 20 feet what a person with normal vision sees at 30 feet. This indicates that the client's vision is slightly worse than average. Choice B is incorrect as it incorrectly describes the visual acuity of each eye individually, rather than the combined visual acuity. Choice C is incorrect as it misinterprets the meaning of the Snellen eye test results by reversing the values. Choice D is incorrect as it inaccurately describes the visual acuity of the client's eyes, attributing different visual acuities to each eye instead of a combined measurement as indicated by 20/30.

2. A healthcare professional is preparing to insert an NG tube for a client admitted with bowel obstruction. Which of the following should the healthcare professional do first?

• A. Explain the procedure to the client
• B. Measure the length of the NG tube
• C. Lubricate the NG tube
• D. Place the client in a high Fowler’s position

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Explaining the procedure to the client is the initial and most important step that the healthcare professional should take before inserting an NG tube. By explaining the procedure, the healthcare professional ensures the client's understanding, obtains informed consent, and fosters cooperation. Measuring the length of the NG tube, lubricating the tube, and positioning the client in a high Fowler's position are essential steps in the NG tube insertion process but should come after the client has been informed and consented to the procedure.

3. When documenting client care, which of the following abbreviations should be used?

• A. SS for sliding scale
• B. BRP for bathroom privileges
• C. OJ for orange juice
• D. SQ for subcutaneous

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When documenting client care, it is crucial to use standardized abbreviations to ensure clear communication and prevent misunderstandings. BRP for bathroom privileges is a recognized and commonly used abbreviation in healthcare settings. Choice A, SS for sliding scale, is not a standard abbreviation and can lead to confusion as it could be mistaken for other meanings. Choice C, OJ for orange juice, is informal and may not be universally understood in a healthcare context. Choice D, SQ for subcutaneous, is a valid abbreviation but may not be as relevant in the context of documenting client care compared to BRP, which is more specific and widely accepted.

4. A client receiving chlorpromazine HCL (Thorazine) is in psychiatric home care. During a home visit, the nurse observes the client smacking her lips alternately with grinding her teeth. The nurse recognizes this assessment finding as what?

• A. Dystonia
• B. Akathisia
• C. Bradykinesia
• D. Tardive dyskinesia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Tardive dyskinesia. Tardive dyskinesia is a potential side effect of long-term antipsychotic use, characterized by involuntary movements like lip smacking and repetitive, purposeless movements. Choice A, dystonia, presents with sustained or repetitive muscle contractions. Choice B, akathisia, involves motor restlessness and a compelling need to be in constant motion. Choice C, bradykinesia, refers to slowness of movement typically seen in Parkinson's disease, not lip smacking and teeth grinding, which are indicative of tardive dyskinesia.

5. A client is being taught about dietary management of hypercholesterolemia. Which of the following foods should be suggested to add to the diet?

• A. Avocados
• B. Fried chicken
• C. Whole milk
• D. Bacon

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Avocados are a good choice to suggest adding to the diet of a client with hypercholesterolemia because they are high in healthy fats, particularly monounsaturated fats, which can help manage cholesterol levels. On the other hand, fried chicken, whole milk, and bacon are high in saturated fats and cholesterol, which should be limited in a diet aimed at managing hypercholesterolemia. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect.

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