a nurse is caring for a client receiving opiates for pain management initially the client was sedated but now is no longer sedated after three days wh
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Nursing Elites

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PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 A with NGN

1. A client receiving opiates for pain management was initially sedated but is no longer sedated after three days. What action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: No action is needed at this time. Sedation from opiates commonly decreases as the body adjusts to the medication. It is a positive sign that the sedation has resolved, indicating the client is tolerating the current dosage well. Initiating additional non-pharmacological pain management techniques (Choice A) is unnecessary since the current pain management regimen is effective. Notifying the provider for a dosage adjustment (Choice B) is premature and not indicated when the sedation has resolved. Contacting the provider to request an alternate method of pain management (Choice D) is excessive and not warranted in this situation where the client is no longer sedated and the current pain management plan is effective.

2. A client with diabetes is receiving education on foot care. Which of the following should be included in the teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Inspect feet daily for cuts and sores. Clients with diabetes are at an increased risk of foot complications, so it is essential to check for any cuts, sores, or injuries daily to prevent infections and complications. Soaking feet in warm water daily (choice B) is not recommended as it can lead to skin breakdown. Wearing closed-toe shoes at all times (choice C) is not advisable as it can cause excessive pressure and friction. Trimming toenails straight across (choice D) is the correct method to prevent ingrown toenails, not trimming them in a rounded shape.

3. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer a dose of clindamycin. Which of the following should the provider assess first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When preparing to administer clindamycin, assessing the patient's allergy history is crucial as clindamycin can cause severe allergic reactions. This assessment helps identify any potential risks related to allergies and enables the healthcare provider to take necessary precautions. Vital signs, renal function, and liver function are also important assessments before administering medications, but in this case, checking for any history of allergies takes priority due to the risk of severe allergic reactions associated with clindamycin.

4. When admitting a client with fever, confusion, and decreased level of consciousness, what should the nurse do first after obtaining the client's history and assessment?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client presents with fever, confusion, and decreased level of consciousness, the first step should be to identify the client's needs. This involves recognizing any immediate concerns or issues that require urgent attention. Starting intravenous fluids, notifying the provider, or conducting a neurological assessment may be necessary actions but should come after identifying the client's needs to ensure proper prioritization of care.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for an antidepressant. The client reports experiencing dry mouth. Which of the following instructions should the nurse give the client?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to chew sugarless gum. Chewing sugarless gum can help alleviate dry mouth by stimulating saliva production, which is a common side effect of many antidepressants. Decreasing fluid intake (choice A) is not recommended as it can worsen dry mouth. Avoiding mouthwash (choice C) is not as effective as chewing gum in stimulating saliva. Increasing intake of dairy products (choice D) is not directly related to managing dry mouth caused by antidepressants.

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