Nursing Elites

1. A client receiving opiates for pain management was initially sedated but is no longer sedated after three days. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Initiate additional non-pharmacological pain management techniques.
• B. Notify the provider that a dosage adjustment is needed.
• C. No action is needed at this time.
• D. Contact the provider to request an alternate method of pain management.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: No action is needed at this time. Sedation from opiates commonly decreases as the body adjusts to the medication. It is a positive sign that the sedation has resolved, indicating the client is tolerating the current dosage well. Initiating additional non-pharmacological pain management techniques (Choice A) is unnecessary since the current pain management regimen is effective. Notifying the provider for a dosage adjustment (Choice B) is premature and not indicated when the sedation has resolved. Contacting the provider to request an alternate method of pain management (Choice D) is excessive and not warranted in this situation where the client is no longer sedated and the current pain management plan is effective.

2. A nurse is caring for a patient whose family member requests to view the patient’s medical record. What response should the nurse make?

• A. “The patient should provide permission to share the records with you.”
• B. “You can view the records if the provider approves it.”
• C. “I will allow you to see the chart if the patient is unable to give consent.”
• D. “You need to fill out a request form.”

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should respond by indicating that the patient needs to provide permission to share their medical records with the family member. Patient confidentiality is a fundamental principle in healthcare, and sharing medical records without the patient's consent is a violation of privacy. Choice B is incorrect because the provider's approval alone is not sufficient to share medical records, as patient consent is crucial. Choice C is incorrect because viewing the patient's chart without the patient's consent is not appropriate. Choice D is incorrect as filling out a request form does not address the issue of patient consent, which is essential for sharing medical information.

3. A nurse in an outpatient facility is assessing a client who is prescribed furosemide 40 mg daily, but the client reports she has been taking extra doses to promote weight loss. Which of the following findings indicates she is dehydrated?

• A. Urine specific gravity of 1.020
• B. Urine specific gravity of 1.035
• C. Decreased skin turgor
• D. Decreased heart rate

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A urine specific gravity greater than 1.030 is indicative of dehydration as it reflects concentrated urine. Choice A is incorrect as a specific gravity of 1.020 is within the normal range. Choice C, decreased skin turgor, can be a sign of dehydration but is not as specific as urine specific gravity. Choice D, decreased heart rate, is not typically a direct indicator of dehydration.

4. A client newly diagnosed with asthma is receiving discharge instructions from a nurse. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will use my fluticasone inhaler to treat asthma attacks.
• B. I will use a peak flow meter once a week.
• C. I will keep a diary of when I use my albuterol inhaler.
• D. I will limit my fluid intake to prevent mucus production.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Keeping a diary of albuterol use helps monitor the frequency and severity of asthma symptoms, which can guide the healthcare provider in adjusting treatment as needed. Option A is incorrect because fluticasone is a controller medication used for long-term management, not for treating acute asthma attacks. Option B is incorrect as using a peak flow meter once a week may not provide real-time information on asthma control. Option D is incorrect as limiting fluid intake does not directly prevent mucus production in asthma.

5. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who is receiving heparin therapy for deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following laboratory values should the provider monitor to evaluate the therapeutic effect of the heparin?

• A. Platelet count
• B. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
• C. Prothrombin time (PT)
• D. Bleeding time

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT) is the correct laboratory value to monitor heparin therapy. PTT measures the time it takes for blood to clot and is specifically used to evaluate the effectiveness of anticoagulation therapy such as heparin. Monitoring the PTT helps ensure that the heparin dose is within the therapeutic range. Platelet count, Prothrombin time (PT), and Bleeding time are not specific laboratory values for monitoring the therapeutic effect of heparin therapy. Platelet count is more indicative of platelet function, PT is used to monitor warfarin therapy, and Bleeding time assesses platelet function rather than the effect of heparin therapy.

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