a nurse is caring for a client receiving opiates for pain management initially the client was sedated but now is no longer sedated after three days wh
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Nursing Elites

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PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 A with NGN

1. A client receiving opiates for pain management was initially sedated but is no longer sedated after three days. What action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: No action is needed at this time. Sedation from opiates commonly decreases as the body adjusts to the medication. It is a positive sign that the sedation has resolved, indicating the client is tolerating the current dosage well. Initiating additional non-pharmacological pain management techniques (Choice A) is unnecessary since the current pain management regimen is effective. Notifying the provider for a dosage adjustment (Choice B) is premature and not indicated when the sedation has resolved. Contacting the provider to request an alternate method of pain management (Choice D) is excessive and not warranted in this situation where the client is no longer sedated and the current pain management plan is effective.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who has systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Butterfly rash on the face. A butterfly-shaped rash across the nose and cheeks is a classic symptom of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), an autoimmune disease. Weight gain (Choice B) is not typically associated with SLE. Joint deformities (Choice C) are more commonly seen in conditions like rheumatoid arthritis. Increased hair growth (Choice D) is not a typical finding in SLE.

3. A healthcare professional is assessing a client for signs of hyperglycemia. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional look for?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Increased thirst is a classic symptom of hyperglycemia due to the body trying to eliminate excess glucose through urine, leading to dehydration and increased thirst. Weight gain, decreased urination, and fatigue are not typical signs of hyperglycemia. Weight gain is more commonly associated with conditions like hypothyroidism or fluid retention. Decreased urination is not a typical symptom of hyperglycemia, as high blood sugar levels usually lead to increased urination. Fatigue can be a symptom of hyperglycemia, but it is not as specific or characteristic as increased thirst.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has deep vein thrombosis (DVT) of the left lower extremity. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to withhold heparin IV infusion. The nurse should withhold heparin if there are signs of complications, such as bleeding, or if there are contraindications to continuing anticoagulation therapy. Positioning the client with the affected extremity higher than the heart helps reduce swelling and improve blood flow. Administering acetaminophen for pain management can be appropriate, but it is not the priority in this situation. Massaging the affected extremity can dislodge the clot and lead to serious complications, so it should be avoided.

5. A nurse is planning care for a newly admitted adolescent client who has bacterial meningitis. Which of the following instructions is appropriate for the nurse to include in the plan of care?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Initiate droplet precautions.' Bacterial meningitis requires droplet precautions to prevent the spread of infection, as the bacteria can be transmitted through respiratory secretions. Choice B is incorrect because assisting the client to a supine position is not specific to the care of a client with bacterial meningitis and may not be appropriate for all clients. Choice C is incorrect because while performing Glasgow Coma Scale assessments is important in managing clients with neurological conditions, it is not directly related to preventing the spread of bacterial meningitis. Choice D is incorrect because recommending prophylactic acyclovir for the client's family is not a standard precautionary measure for preventing the spread of bacterial meningitis.

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