ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2024
1. A client post-lumbar puncture should be in which position?
- A. High Fowler's position
- B. Prone position
- C. Supine position
- D. Sitting position
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The most appropriate position for a client post-lumbar puncture is the supine position. Placing the client in a supine position helps prevent spinal headaches by allowing the puncture site to seal effectively and reducing the risk of cerebrospinal fluid leakage. High Fowler's position, prone position, and sitting position are not recommended after a lumbar puncture as they may increase the risk of complications like spinal headaches.
2. A client is being taught about taking warfarin to treat atrial fibrillation. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will take this medication on an empty stomach.
- B. If I forget to take a dose, I can take it later on the same day.
- C. I will skip my dose if I forget to take it.
- D. I can take an additional dose if I miss one.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because taking warfarin later on the same day if a dose is missed helps maintain therapeutic levels. Choice A is incorrect because warfarin should be taken with food to enhance absorption. Choice C is incorrect as skipping a dose can lead to fluctuations in warfarin levels. Choice D is incorrect as taking an additional dose can increase the risk of bleeding.
3. What are the key signs of hyperkalemia and how should it be treated?
- A. Elevated potassium levels, muscle weakness; administer calcium gluconate
- B. Decreased potassium levels, confusion; administer potassium chloride
- C. Elevated sodium levels, bradycardia; administer sodium bicarbonate
- D. Low sodium levels, muscle cramps; administer sodium chloride
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct signs of hyperkalemia include elevated potassium levels and muscle weakness. The treatment involves administering calcium gluconate to help stabilize the heart. Choice B is incorrect as hyperkalemia is characterized by elevated, not decreased, potassium levels. Choice C is incorrect as hyperkalemia does not involve elevated sodium levels, and the treatment is not sodium bicarbonate. Choice D is incorrect as hyperkalemia does not lead to low sodium levels, and sodium chloride is not the treatment for hyperkalemia.
4. Which type of infectious diseases are required to be reported to the health department?
- A. Staphylococcus aureus infections, including MRSA
- B. Severe cases of flu-like symptoms
- C. Common colds and non-severe respiratory infections
- D. Only contagious diseases like meningitis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Staphylococcus aureus infections, including MRSA. Severe infections like MRSA are required to be reported to the health department as they pose a significant public health risk. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because severe flu-like symptoms, common colds, and non-severe respiratory infections, and only contagious diseases like meningitis do not fall under the category of infectious diseases that must be reported to the health department.
5. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a prescription for levothyroxine. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional identify as an indication of a need for dosage adjustment?
- A. Tremors
- B. Increased appetite
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Diarrhea
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Increased appetite may indicate that the client is experiencing symptoms of hyperthyroidism due to an excessive dose of levothyroxine. This finding suggests a need for a dosage adjustment to prevent potential complications. Tremors are more commonly associated with hyperthyroidism, not necessarily indicating a need for dosage adjustment. Bradycardia and diarrhea are not typical signs of an incorrect levothyroxine dosage and would not directly warrant a need for adjustment.
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