a nurse is assisting with monitoring a client who is in labor and has spontaneous rupture of membranes following a vaginal examination the provider re
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2024

1. A nurse is assisting with monitoring a client who is in labor and has spontaneous rupture of membranes following a vaginal examination. The provider reports the client's cervix is dilated to 1 cm with an unengaged presenting part. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, with the client's cervix dilated to only 1 cm and an unengaged presenting part, the priority action is to apply the external fetal monitor. This allows for continuous monitoring of the fetal heart rate during early labor, which is crucial for assessing fetal well-being. Encouraging the client to bear down is not appropriate at 1 cm dilation, as it may not be effective and can lead to exhaustion. Providing the client with fluids or administering IV fluids may be necessary for hydration, but the immediate concern is monitoring fetal well-being.

2. What are the early signs and symptoms of sepsis?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased heart rate and fever. In sepsis, an increased heart rate and fever are common early signs of systemic infection. While choices B, C, and D can be present in later stages of sepsis, they are not typically the initial signs. Low blood pressure and confusion may occur in severe sepsis or septic shock. Rapid breathing and sweating can be seen as sepsis progresses. Abdominal pain and cyanosis may develop as the condition advances but are not usually the earliest signs.

3. How should a healthcare professional assess a patient with dehydration?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: When assessing a patient for dehydration, healthcare professionals should monitor skin turgor, as it indicates the degree of dehydration, and check urine output, as decreased urine output can be a sign of dehydration. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly assess for dehydration. Assessing for jugular venous distention (B) is more relevant for heart failure, auscultating lung sounds and monitoring for fever (C) are more relevant for respiratory infections, and monitoring for cyanosis and increased respiratory rate (D) are more indicative of respiratory distress rather than dehydration.

4. A nurse is reinforcing teaching about a clear liquid diet. What should the client avoid?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Ginger ale. A clear liquid diet includes fluids that are see-through and easily digestible. Ginger ale is a carbonated beverage that is allowed on a clear liquid diet. Orange sherbet, choice B, is not suitable for a clear liquid diet as it contains dairy products and solid particles, which are not transparent. Lemon-lime sports drinks, choice A, may contain added colorings or particles that are not allowed on a clear liquid diet. Black coffee, choice C, is also not recommended on a clear liquid diet as it is not a clear liquid and contains substances that may be hard to digest.

5. What is the best dietary recommendation for a patient with chronic kidney disease?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is a low-protein diet for a patient with chronic kidney disease. In chronic kidney disease, the kidneys may have difficulty filtering waste products from protein metabolism, leading to a buildup of toxins in the body. Therefore, reducing protein intake can help lessen the workload on the kidneys. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. A high-protein diet would increase the workload on the kidneys, while a low-sodium diet is beneficial for conditions like hypertension or heart failure but not specifically targeted for chronic kidney disease. A high-sodium diet can worsen fluid retention and hypertension in patients with kidney disease.

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