Nursing Elites

1. When caring for a client experiencing delirium, which of the following is essential?

• A. Controlling behavioral symptoms with low-dose psychotropics
• B. Identifying the underlying causative condition or illness
• C. Manipulating the environment to increase orientation
• D. Decreasing or discontinuing all previously prescribed medications

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When caring for a client experiencing delirium, it is essential to identify the underlying causative condition or illness. Delirium can be caused by various factors such as infections, medication side effects, dehydration, or underlying health conditions. By identifying the root cause, appropriate treatment can be provided. Controlling behavioral symptoms with low-dose psychotropics (Choice A) may be considered in some cases but is not the primary essential step. Manipulating the environment to increase orientation (Choice C) can help manage symptoms but does not address the underlying cause. Decreasing or discontinuing all previously prescribed medications (Choice D) should only be done under medical supervision, as some medications may be necessary for the client's well-being.

2. A client with heart failure is on a fluid restriction. What should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?

• A. Encourage the client to drink more water to stay hydrated
• B. Monitor the client's weight daily
• C. Avoid drinking water after 6 PM
• D. Monitor fluid intake only during meals

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Monitor the client's weight daily.' In clients with heart failure on fluid restriction, monitoring daily weight is crucial to track fluid balance. This allows healthcare providers to assess if the client is retaining excess fluid, a common issue in heart failure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Encouraging the client to drink more water contradicts the fluid restriction; avoiding drinking water after 6 PM is not specific to managing fluid restriction; and monitoring fluid intake only during meals does not provide a comprehensive assessment of fluid balance throughout the day.

3. A client is given morphine 6 mg IV push for postoperative pain. Following administration of this drug, the nurse observes the following: pulse 68, respirations 8, BP 100/68, client sleeping quietly. Which of the following nursing actions is MOST appropriate?

• A. Allow the client to sleep undisturbed
• B. Administer oxygen via facemask or nasal prongs
• C. Administer naloxone (Narcan)
• D. Place epinephrine 1:1,000 at the bedside

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer naloxone (Narcan). The client's vital signs indicate opioid-induced respiratory depression, which is a potential side effect of morphine. Naloxone is used to reverse the effects of opioids, particularly to restore normal respiratory function. Administering oxygen alone (Choice B) may not address the underlying cause of respiratory depression. Allowing the client to sleep undisturbed (Choice A) is inappropriate when signs of respiratory depression are present. Epinephrine (Choice D) is not indicated in this situation and is not used to reverse opioid effects.

4. A nurse is reviewing the plan of care for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?

• A. Monitor daily fluid intake
• B. Monitor blood glucose levels
• C. Measure intake and output
• D. Administer insulin as prescribed

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Monitor blood glucose levels.' When a client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN), which has a high glucose content, it is crucial to monitor blood glucose levels closely to prevent hyperglycemia. Monitoring daily fluid intake (Choice A) is important in other contexts but is not directly related to TPN administration. Measuring intake and output (Choice C) is a general nursing intervention that is relevant for assessing fluid balance but is not specific to TPN administration. Administering insulin as prescribed (Choice D) may be necessary for clients with hyperglycemia, but this intervention is based on the blood glucose monitoring results and the healthcare provider's orders, not a standard intervention for all clients receiving TPN.

5. What is the correct way to assess for pitting edema?

• A. Press over the bony area for 5 seconds and release
• B. Press over the skin for 10 seconds and check for discoloration
• C. Press the area and check for the presence of rash
• D. Press the skin and assess for rebound tenderness

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct way to assess for pitting edema is to press over a bony area, typically the tibia, for 5 seconds and then release. This allows for the identification of pitting edema, characterized by an indentation that persists for a few seconds. Choice B is incorrect as pitting edema assessment does not involve checking for discoloration. Choice C is incorrect as the presence of a rash is not indicative of pitting edema. Choice D is incorrect as rebound tenderness is a different assessment used for abdominal conditions, not for pitting edema.

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