Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client with home oxygen therapy. Which of the following is essential for safety?

• A. Allow the client to smoke in designated outdoor areas
• B. Place the oxygen equipment 10 feet away from any open flames
• C. Keep oxygen tanks upright at all times
• D. Restrict fluid intake while using oxygen

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to keep oxygen tanks upright at all times. This is essential for safety as it prevents the tanks from falling and causing injury. Allowing the client to smoke in designated outdoor areas (Choice A) is unsafe as smoking near oxygen equipment can lead to a fire. Placing the oxygen equipment 10 feet away from any open flames (Choice B) is important to prevent fire hazards, but keeping the tanks upright is more directly related to preventing injuries. Restricting fluid intake while using oxygen (Choice D) is not necessary for safety in home oxygen therapy.

2. How should a healthcare professional assess a patient with suspected sepsis?

• A. Monitor vital signs and administer antibiotics
• B. Monitor for signs of infection and confusion
• C. Monitor for fever and check oxygen saturation
• D. Assess for confusion and administer fluids

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When assessing a patient with suspected sepsis, it is crucial to monitor vital signs like temperature, heart rate, respiratory rate, and blood pressure. Administering antibiotics promptly is also vital to treat the infection causing sepsis. This approach helps in preventing the progression of sepsis to severe stages and reduces the risk of complications. Choice B is incorrect because only monitoring signs of infection and confusion may delay necessary treatment with antibiotics. Choice C is incorrect as it focuses only on fever and oxygen saturation, missing other important vital signs. Choice D is incorrect because assessing for confusion alone is not sufficient, and administering fluids should be guided by the patient's fluid status rather than being an initial step in suspected sepsis assessment.

3. A healthcare professional is collecting data from a client who has iron deficiency anemia. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional expect?

• A. Increased energy
• B. Easy bruising
• C. Pale conjunctiva
• D. Weight gain

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Pale conjunctiva is a common sign of iron deficiency anemia due to reduced hemoglobin levels. This results in decreased oxygen-carrying capacity, leading to tissue hypoxia and pallor. 'Increased energy' (choice A) is not typically associated with iron deficiency anemia, as fatigue and weakness are common symptoms. 'Easy bruising' (choice B) is more characteristic of platelet disorders or vitamin deficiencies rather than iron deficiency anemia. 'Weight gain' (choice D) is not a typical finding in iron deficiency anemia; in fact, weight loss is more common due to decreased appetite and overall weakness.

4. A nurse is teaching a client who has peripheral arterial disease (PAD) about exercise recommendations. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Exercise to the point of pain
• B. Stop exercising if pain occurs
• C. Exercise only once per week
• D. Avoid walking to prevent pain

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should include is to 'Stop exercising if pain occurs.' In peripheral arterial disease (PAD), it is crucial to avoid exercising to the point of pain as this may worsen the condition and lead to complications. Exercising to the point of pain can result in inadequate blood flow to the extremities, causing further damage. By stopping exercise if pain occurs, the client can prevent exacerbating their condition. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because exercising to the point of pain, limiting exercise to once per week, and avoiding walking altogether are not recommended strategies for managing PAD and could potentially harm the client.

5. Which of the following findings should the nurse anticipate in the medical record of a client with a pressure ulcer?

• A. Serum albumin level of 3 g/dL
• B. Braden scale score of 20
• C. Norton scale score of 18
• D. Hemoglobin level of 13 g/dL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum albumin level of 3 g/dL. A serum albumin level of 3 g/dL indicates poor nutrition, which is commonly seen in clients with pressure ulcers. Choice B, a Braden scale score of 20, is incorrect because a higher Braden scale score indicates a lower risk of developing pressure ulcers. Choice C, a Norton scale score of 18, is incorrect as it is a tool used to assess the risk of developing pressure ulcers, not a finding in a client with an existing pressure ulcer. Choice D, a hemoglobin level of 13 g/dL, is unrelated to pressure ulcers and does not directly reflect the nutritional status associated with this condition.

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