Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is contributing to the plan of care for an older adult client who has difficulty sleeping. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?

• A. Give a bedtime snack
• B. Encourage a short nap in the afternoon
• C. Encourage exercise right before bed
• D. Establish a regular exercise routine 2 hours or more before bedtime

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Establishing a regular exercise routine at least 2 hours before bedtime promotes better sleep in older adults. Giving a bedtime snack (choice A) may disrupt sleep due to digestion, encouraging a short nap in the afternoon (choice B) can interfere with nighttime sleep, and encouraging exercise right before bed (choice C) can increase alertness and make it harder to fall asleep.

2. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is receiving warfarin for atrial fibrillation. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. International normalized ratio (INR) of 2.5
• B. Platelet count of 180,000/mm³
• C. Prothrombin time (PT) of 12 seconds
• D. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) of 30 seconds

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A prothrombin time (PT) of 12 seconds is below the therapeutic range for warfarin and indicates a need for dosage adjustment. The correct answer is C. A normal International normalized ratio (INR) for a client on warfarin therapy is usually between 2.0 to 3.0; therefore, an INR of 2.5 is within the expected range. A platelet count of 180,000/mm³ is within the normal range (150,000 to 450,000/mm³) and does not require immediate reporting. A partial thromboplastin time (PTT) of 30 seconds is also within the normal range (25-35 seconds) and does not indicate a need for urgent action.

3. A nurse is caring for an infant who is receiving IV fluids for dehydration. Which of the following should the nurse recognize as a positive response to the therapy?

• A. Tachycardia
• B. Hypotension
• C. Increased urine output
• D. Diarrhea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Increased urine output is a positive sign that the IV fluids are effectively treating dehydration. Tachycardia (choice A) and hypotension (choice B) are signs of dehydration and would not be considered positive responses to therapy. Diarrhea (choice D) can worsen dehydration and is not a positive response to IV fluid therapy.

4. What are key signs of a urinary tract infection (UTI) in older adults?

• A. Confusion and increased temperature
• B. Painful urination and frequent urination
• C. Dizziness and headache
• D. Back pain and fever

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. In older adults, key signs of a UTI often include confusion and increased temperature. Confusion is a common symptom in the elderly when they have a UTI, and an increase in body temperature can indicate an infection. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while painful urination and frequent urination are common UTI symptoms in general, they may not be as prominent in older adults. Dizziness, headache, back pain, and fever can be associated with other conditions but are not typically key signs of a UTI in older adults.

5. A nurse is reviewing the plan of care for a client who is taking digoxin. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor as an adverse effect of this medication?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hypernatremia
• C. Hypertension
• D. Tachycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Hypokalemia is an adverse effect of digoxin. Digoxin can cause hypokalemia, which increases the risk of toxicity. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial when a client is taking digoxin. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as hypernatremia, hypertension, and tachycardia are not directly associated with digoxin use.

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